FREE Orthopaedic Nurse MCQ Questions and Answers

0%

A 30-year-old guy is admitted to the hospital for intravenous antibiotics because he has septic arthritis in his right knee. Which of the following additional treatments would be essential to getting rid of the infection?

Correct! Wrong!

Explanation:
Regular joint draining and antibiotics are essential for the treatment of septic arthritis because the synovial fluid is infected and purulent. If needle aspiration, which is often done once a day at first, is insufficient to drain the joint, an arthroscopy may be performed to irrigate and clean the joint. An arthrotomy may be required in specific circumstances. Drains are typically inserted in the joints to drain the fluids if surgery is necessary.

Which of the following consequences should be specifically watched in patients with psoriatic lesions on their nails?

Correct! Wrong!

Explanation:
All people with psoriasis are at a higher risk of developing psoriatic arthritis, but those who have lesions on their nails are particularly vulnerable. Nails with lesions show up as pitting, discolored, and sometimes loosened from the nail bed. Any joint may be affected by psoriatic arthritis, but the large joints of the lower extremities, the distal joints of the fingers (dactylitis), and the lower back are the most frequently affected (spondylitis). Enthesitis, or pain where the ligaments and tendons join, can occur in patients.

For a herniated cervical disk, a patient underwent a cervical discectomy. An indication of recurrent laryngeal nerve harm could be

Correct! Wrong!

Explanation:
The recurrent laryngeal nerve may be injured by the use of retractors during surgery, which could lead to hoarseness and an inadequate cough or clearance of pulmonary secretions. Spinal instability may be indicated by a sharp, rapid rise in radicular discomfort. A dural leak may be indicated by serosanguineous discharge. Particularly if there is a dural leak, a headache could be the first indicator of an infection or meningitis. If the chord is compressed, the patient may have immediate or gradual paralysis.

The right foot is polydactyl when a baby is born, although there is no bone involvement. The best course of action at this time would be

Correct! Wrong!

Explanation:
After birth, the extra digit is tied off with a silk suture or vascular clip if polydactyly does not compromise the bone structure. Circulation is hampered as a result, and the extra digit eventually falls off, leaving only a small scar. When a digit is affected by bone, it may be kept in situ with no treatment or it may be surgically removed, usually when the child is around a year old.

Type IV osteogenesis imperfecta has been identified in a child who has sustained many fractures. What kind of exercise is most advantageous?

Correct! Wrong!

Explanation:
Activity should be promoted for kids with osteogenesis imperfecta, however some forms of exercise may raise the risk of fracture. Swimming is a rather risk-free type of exercise (unlike diving, though). This is because there is less chance of fractures. Infants can safely kick while lying in shallow, warm water, which can help them develop stronger muscles. Later, kids can swim, play, and walk in the water (first with swim vests and later independently). When a child reaches puberty, the risk of fractures associated with type IV osteogenesis decreases.

What is the most crucial course of action when an osteoarthritic joint experiences noticeably increased pain and inflammation?

Correct! Wrong!

Explanation:
The most crucial treatment is resting the joint when pain and inflammation in an osteoarthritic joint significantly worsen. To keep the joint in a functional posture, splints can be worn for up to a week, although using them for extended periods of time may make the joint stiffer. To lessen joint stress, patients may need to adjust their activities and use aids like a cane or walker. To help with joint stability and function, braces can be bought over the counter or made to suit you specifically.