CNRN Practice Test

FREE Neuroscience Registered Nurse Certification Questions and Answers

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A 65-year-old woman and her son arrive at the clinic complaining of recent mental and personality changes. Her lack of social interaction, her slowness when executing manual jobs, and her tendency to forget things have all been noted by the son. The patient reports having the occasional headaches but denies having experienced any head trauma. What CT scan finding in this patient might point to a chronic subdural hematoma?

Correct! Wrong!

- For a suspected subdural hematoma, the first imaging test of choice is a computed tomography (CT) scan of the head without contrast.
- A chronic subdural hematoma is often less thick than an acute subdural hematoma.
- A subdural hematoma usually resembles a crescent.
- It may be more challenging to detect a subacute subdural if it is isodense to the brain.

A 45-year-old man comes in with weak arms and legs that have been developing gradually. He is having trouble breathing as the weakness has now spread to his chest. He claims the weakness began in his extremities and has progressed to swallowing difficulties. Over the last three months, he has shed around 15 lbs (6.8 kg). His lower limbs have fasciculations, and an examination of his nervous system reveals hyperreflexia in his upper limbs. His gag reaction is lessened, but his jaw jerk is accentuated. Which of the following statements most accurately sums up the patient's clinical pathogenesis?

Correct! Wrong!

- Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is a disorder with several etiologies and an unknown cause. The pathogenesis of ALS is characterized by axon degradation and gliosis in the anterior and lateral columns of the spinal cord.
- Both upper and lower motor neurons slowly degenerate as a symptom of the illness.
- Hyperreflexia, spasticity, weakness, and fasciculation are symptoms of the illness.
- Although there is no known cure for ALS, there are a number of treatments and drugs that can lessen symptoms and extend life, sometimes by up to 10 years or more.

A 36-year-old man complains of low back pain when he visits the pain clinic. His symptoms started suddenly two weeks ago after he attempted to raise a hefty piece of furniture. According to him, the discomfort "shoots down" his left leg. What physical examination signs are most indicative of L4 radiculopathy?

Correct! Wrong!

- Low back discomfort that travels down a lower extremity is the most typical symptom of lumbar radiculopathy. Numbness in a dermatomal pattern and weakness along the afflicted myotome are possible additional symptoms.
- Reduced reflexes are a lower motor neuron symptom that may be present in radiculopathy.
- The sensation should be examined during a neurologic examination. A dermatomal pattern with impaired feeling is symptomatic of radiculopathy.
- Upper motor neuron symptoms like clonus or a positive Babinski sign may indicate spinal cord involvement and warrant further examination of the shoulder. In lumbar radiculopathy, motor weakness can be observed and will occur after a particular myotome: L2 hip flexion, L3 knee extension, L4 dorsiflexion, L5 great toe dorsiflexion, and S1 plantar flexion.

Symptoms of a fever, headaches, and confusion have been present for two days in a 33-year-old lady. Her vital signs are normal. It is typical for her to receive an immediate non-contrast head CT. Her medical team believes she may have viral encephalitis. What diagnostic procedure is most suitable?

Correct! Wrong!

- Meningoencephalitis is most likely the patient's condition. The diagnosis should be verified by a lumbar puncture.
- Viral serology and bacterial culture can be performed on cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) obtained from the lumbar puncture.
- Viral encephalitis is a virus-induced inflammation of the brain parenchyma. It coexists frequently with viral meningitis and is the most prevalent kind of encephalitis.
- The majority of people who suffer from viral encephalitis recover completely. Those who continue to exhibit symptoms struggle with focus, have behavioral and communication issues, or suffer from memory loss. Patients may occasionally continue to be in a vegetative state.

An elderly guy worries about his wife who has Alzheimer's disease and spends the entire day sitting in front of the TV without doing anything else. He's looking for things they can both do together. What exercise should the nurse advise the patient to do?

Correct! Wrong!

- She might not be able to solve crossword puzzles.
- Constant supervision would be necessary when making brownies.
- She might safely pass the time by winding thread or stringing beads.
- Treatment requires supportive care. Aggression, sadness, paranoia, and trouble sleeping are common secondary effects that can be troublesome and frequently call for psychiatric medicine.

A patient with pain behind the right eye and around the right temple attends the clinic. On the same side, he also experiences rhinorrhea and lacrimation. The client has previously experienced a handful of these episodes, which typically lasted 30 to 60 minutes and were labeled as cluster headaches. He took two ibuprofen tablets at home without any alleviation. What would a nurse consider the best course of action with the fewest adverse effects?

Correct! Wrong!

- 100% oxygen therapy is arguably the most well-known remedy for cluster headaches.
- This method is specific to cluster headaches compared to all other types of headaches and is a level A recommendation.
- It takes less than ten minutes to take effect.
- Oxygen therapy is a great option because it has no hazards or adverse effects.

A 65-year-old man comes in with a bad headache that started suddenly. His medical history is crucial for both diabetes and high blood pressure. The results of the cranial nerve evaluation are normal. There are no visible motor or sensory abnormalities, although there is bilateral Babinski sign and positive nuchal rigidity. The right Sylvian fissure and basal cisterns show hyperdensity on a brain CT scan. Which of the following, given the expected diagnosis, is the most frequent complication and the main reason for postponed morbidity and mortality?

Correct! Wrong!

- The most frequent complication of subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH) and the main factor in postponed morbidity and death is vasospasm.
- It typically happens two to four days following the first bleeding. The frequency peaks between 6 and 8 days and subsides between 3 and 4 weeks.
- Calcium channel blockers should be used to treat it.
- Hyperdynamic therapy with inotropes and hypervolemic hemodilution are two other treatment options.