FREE CBT Trivia Questions and Answers

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Anti-embolic stockings are an excellent way to reduce the risk of getting deep vein thrombosis because:

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Explanation:
Anti-embolic stockings are meant to apply progressive pressure to the legs, with the maximum pressure at the ankles and the lowest pressure at the thighs. This causes a squeezing effect in the veins, allowing blood to travel upward toward the heart and preventing it from collecting or clotting in the lower extremities. Anti-embolic stockings enhance venous blood flow while decreasing the risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT), a dangerous disorder that can result in pulmonary embolism or other problems.

What are the qualified nurse's professional responsibilities in medicine management?

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Explanation:
The answer is all drugs under their care must be handled and administered safely. This includes ensuring that patients understand the medications they are taking, why they are taking them, and the potential side effects. According to the NMC (2008), the nurse has a professional responsibility to ensure that medicines are managed and administered safely and effectively.

In clinical practice, why are physiological scoring systems or early warning scoring systems used?

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Explanation:
The answer is by identifying physiological characteristics that warn nursing personnel to a patient at risk, the method gives an early reliable predictor of deterioration. The reason is because physiological scoring systems or early warning scoring systems are tools that are used to monitor the vital signs of patients and detect any signs of clinical deterioration.

What roles should a dressing do in order for wound healing to be effective?

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Explanation:
For effective wound healing, a dressing should perform various duties, including maintaining a moist environment, collecting excess exudate, providing thermal insulation and mechanical protection, permitting gaseous and fluid exchange, and preventing bacterial infection. A high humidity dressing can encourage epithelial cell migration and the creation of granulation tissue, whereas a low humidity dressing might cause wound dryness and necrosis. An absorbent dressing can reduce wound fluid maceration and leakage, whereas an impermeable dressing might trap the fluid and induce infection. An insulation dressing can keep the wound temperature steady, whilst a low adherence dressing can protect the wound bed during dressing changes. An anaerobic dressing can generate a hypoxic environment that inhibits wound healing, whereas a gaseous exchange dressing can enable oxygen and carbon dioxide to pass through. As a result, a dressing that performs high humidity, insulation, gaseous exchange, and absorbent activities is most suited for successful wound healing.

As a newly qualified nurse, you and a colleague spot a discrepancy when checking the stock balance in the restricted medicine record book. What would you do in this situation?

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Explanation:
The best answer is to examine the cabinet, record book, and order book and notify the licensed nurse or person in charge of the clinical area. If the missing medications are not discovered, notify the most senior nurse on duty. You will also need to fill out an incident form. This answer follows the guidelines for dealing with a Schedule 4 Restricted and Schedule 8 Medicines Discrepancy, which state that an initial review should be performed by staff in the area, who are normally responsible for the day to day management of those medicines. The review should systematically work through the most common operational causes, such as counting or calculation errors, and check the physical stock against the register records. If the discrepancy can be resolved within 24 hours, no report is required.

When should adult patients in acute care facilities be observed?

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Explanation:
The answer is when they are admitted or first evaluated, a plan should be carefully written that specifies which observations should be collected and how frequently further observations should be performed.According to the NICE guideline for acutely ill patients in hospital1, adult patients in acute hospital settings, including patients in the emergency department for whom a clinical decision to admit has been made, should have a physiological observations recorded at the time of their admission or initial assessment, and a clear written monitoring plan that specifies which physiological observations should be recorded and how often.

When will you consider releasing the patient's details to a police officer?

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Explanation:
The answer is if the public's safety is jeopardized. It’s because as a health care professional, you have a duty of confidentiality to your patients. This means that you should not disclose any information about them without their consent, unless it is required by law or justified in the public interest. The public interest is a legal term that refers to the benefit or welfare of the general public.

What are the fundamentals of obtaining informed consent prior to surgery?

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Explanation:
The best answer is obtaining consent from a competent patient by delivering information in intelligible language prior to operation, offering time for questioning, and inviting voluntary participation. This answer reflects the principles of informed consent, which are respect for autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Respect for autonomy means that the patient has the right to make their own decisions about their health care, without coercion or manipulation.

When might using a wound care strategy be beneficial?

Please select 3 correct answers

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Explanation:
These scenarios encompass several stages of wound care, such as initial assessment, post-operative care, and dealing with complications such as infection, dehiscence (the partial or total separation of the wound margins), or evisceration (the protrusion of internal organs through a wound).

You are caring for a patient who has recently suffered a head injury and have been instructed to conduct neurological observations every 15 minutes. You examine him and discover that his pupils are uneven, with one not reacting to light. You can't rouse him any longer. What are your plans?

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Explanation:
The answer is there is a medical emergency here. Basic airway, breathing, and circulation issues should be addressed immediately, and senior assistance should be sought. The explanation for this is because a patient who has recently suffered a head injury and has unequal or unreactive pupils, and who is not rousable, is likely to have a severe traumatic brain injury (TBI) or increased intracranial pressure (ICP). These are life-threatening conditions that require immediate medical attention and intervention.

It is critical that patients fast effectively before to surgery in order to:

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Explanation:
The correct answer is to reduce the possibility of reflux and gastric inhalation. This answer is based on the rationale that preoperative fasting aims to reduce the risk of pulmonary aspiration, which is defined as aspiration of gastric contents occurring after induction of anesthesia, during a procedure, or in the immediate postoperative period. Pulmonary aspiration can cause serious complications such as pneumonia, acute respiratory distress syndrome, or death. Therefore, patients are advised to fast for a prescribed period of time before a procedure to decrease the gastric volume and acidity.