FREE BCACP Medication Management Questions and Answers

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A 58-year-old female with a history of hypertension and osteoarthritis is being treated with the following medications:

Lisinopril 10 mg daily
Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ) 25 mg daily
Ibuprofen 400 mg TID for knee pain
She complains of worsening blood pressure readings, now averaging 150/92 mmHg.
What is the MOST likely reason for her uncontrolled blood pressure?

Correct! Wrong!

NSAIDs like Ibuprofen can interfere with antihypertensive medications, leading to increased blood pressure. NSAIDs reduce the renal prostaglandins that mediate vasodilation, causing sodium and water retention.
B. Lisinopril dose is too low: Although the dose could be titrated, the addition of Ibuprofen is a significant contributing factor.
C. HCTZ causing hypokalemia: Hypokalemia can occur with thiazides but is not the main cause here.
D. Non-adherence: There is no evidence provided for non-adherence.
Clinical Tip: Avoid chronic NSAID use in patients with hypertension; consider alternatives like acetaminophen for pain.

A 65-year-old male with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF, EF 35%) is currently on the following medications:

Carvedilol 6.25 mg BID
Lisinopril 10 mg daily
Furosemide 40 mg daily

His blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, and he is asymptomatic. What is the NEXT best step in optimizing his therapy?

Correct! Wrong!

Carvedilol titration: In HFrEF, beta-blockers (Carvedilol, Metoprolol succinate) should be titrated to the target dose as tolerated to improve mortality and reduce hospitalizations. The patient is stable with a low-normal BP, making up-titration appropriate.
B. Discontinue Furosemide: Diuretics manage fluid status; discontinuation is inappropriate without signs of volume overload resolution.
C. Add Spironolactone: Spironolactone is indicated for HFrEF patients with EF ≤ 35% and persistent symptoms despite optimized therapy, which is not the case here.
D. Increase Lisinopril: ACE inhibitors are titrated gradually, but priority is given to beta-blocker titration to target doses.
Clinical Tip: Always titrate beta-blockers to target doses unless the patient is symptomatic or hypotensive.

A 72-year-old woman with atrial fibrillation (AF) and a CHADS₂-VASc score of 4 is prescribed Apixaban 5 mg BID. Her labs show:

Serum creatinine: 1.6 mg/dL
Weight: 48 kg
Age: 72 years
What is the appropriate adjustment to her Apixaban dose?

Correct! Wrong!

Apixaban dosing adjustment is required when 2 out of 3 criteria are met:

Age ≥ 80 years
Weight ≤ 60 kg
Serum creatinine ≥ 1.5 mg/dL
In this case:

Age: 72 years (does not meet)
Weight: 48 kg (meets criterion)
Serum creatinine: 1.6 mg/dL (meets criterion)
Thus, the dose should be reduced to 2.5 mg BID.

Clinical Tip: Always monitor renal function and weight in older patients on direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs).

A 60-year-old man with Type 2 Diabetes and albuminuria (urine albumin-creatinine ratio of 350 mg/g) is currently on Metformin 1000 mg BID. His blood pressure is 140/85 mmHg.

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate addition to his therapy?

Correct! Wrong!

Empagliflozin (SGLT2 inhibitor) is indicated in patients with Type 2 Diabetes and albuminuria due to its renal protective effects and ability to lower cardiovascular risk.
B. Amlodipine: This calcium channel blocker lowers blood pressure but does not provide renal protection like SGLT2 inhibitors.
C. Pioglitazone: Increases risk of fluid retention and heart failure.
D. Sitagliptin: DPP-4 inhibitors improve glycemic control but lack renal and cardiovascular benefits.
Clinical Tip: SGLT2 inhibitors (e.g., Empagliflozin, Dapagliflozin) are preferred in diabetic patients with albuminuria.

A 64-year-old male with coronary artery disease (CAD) and a history of myocardial infarction is currently taking:

Aspirin 81 mg daily
Metoprolol succinate 50 mg daily
Lisinopril 20 mg daily
His LDL cholesterol is 110 mg/dL. What is the BEST addition to his therapy?

Correct! Wrong!

Patients with CAD and a history of myocardial infarction should be on high-intensity statin therapy to reduce LDL to <70 mg/dL. Atorvastatin 40-80 mg or Rosuvastatin 20-40 mg is recommended.
B. Ezetimibe: Not first-line; it can be added if LDL goals are not achieved with statins alone.
C. Rosuvastatin 5 mg: This is a moderate-intensity dose and insufficient for secondary prevention.
D. Increase Metoprolol: No indication for beta-blocker dose increase; focus here is on lipid management.
Clinical Tip: In secondary prevention, prioritize high-intensity statins to lower LDL cholesterol aggressively.