MSRA Exam (Multi-Specialty Recruitment Assessment)

FREE Basic MSRA Practice Questions and Answers

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Which class of medications is used to treat male patients primarily for voiding symptoms in the first line of care?

Correct! Wrong!

Correct Answer: Alpha Blocker
Most candidates should feel comfortable and confident in their ability to respond to this relatively simple question.

An 80-year-old overweight man complains of leg cramps that get worse when he exercises. He smokes fifteen cigarettes a day and consumes thirty units of alcohol daily. Which of the following suggestions would be the best place to start?

Correct! Wrong!

Correct Answer: Stop Smoking
The patient is exhibiting sporadic claudication. While many of the options are helpful, quitting smoking is the most crucial first step in managing your health.

A 75-year-old man who has been diagnosed with AF appears with bilateral fine crepitations and a cough. He has not raised his JVP. HR: 72 Regular, Temperature: 36.8 C, Oxygen Saturations: 95%, and Respiratory Rate: 18. Which diagnosis seems most likely?

Correct! Wrong!

Correct Answer: Pulmonary Fibrosis
The question's seemingly contradictory details can point to several different diagnoses, but the important detail is that the crackles in the 'fine' range correspond to a typical JVP. The goal of the AF is to lead physicians astray. Thus, pulmonary fibrosis is the most likely diagnosis.

In the case of an 80-year-old delirious inpatient who has removed his third cannula today, which medicine would be the most appropriate?

Correct! Wrong!

Correct Answer: Oral Haloperidol
Because delirium is caused by multiple factors, this is a difficult question with no obvious right answer. PO Haloperidol is the only and most suitable drug among those offered, coming from the approved NICE CKS list of medications for short-term use in delirium (Haloperidol, Lorazepam, Levomepromazine). PO Haloperidol continues to be the most acceptable option among those offered, even though treating the underlying cause of delirium is the most appropriate management approach and is not listed as an option.

A 40 year-old woman exhibits symptoms of heat intolerance, weight loss, sweating, and loose stools. Upon examination, three thyroid nodules were found, and the following measurements were made: T = 36.8, HR = 92, and BP = 129/83. Provide the most plausible diagnosis.

Correct! Wrong!

Correct Answer: Multinodular Goitre
Compared to Graves' Disease, which typically manifests as a smooth goitre, multinodular goitre is the more likely diagnosis due to the multiple nodules and thyrotoxic symptoms. The symptoms and observations at this time do not point to a thyroid storm, although this could worsen into one if treatment is delayed.

A 50-year-old man with chest pain experienced flu-like symptoms for three days after finishing a half-marathon a week prior. He is currently speaking in complete sentences and has a 110 pulse. From the list of diagnoses below, select the most likely one.

Correct! Wrong!

Correct Answer: Myocarditis
This case illustrates the difficulty with the MSRA. Many of these possibilities are realistic, and in order to rule out some of the causes, more testing (such as ECG, Troponin, and CXR) would be necessary. However, myocarditis is the most likely diagnosis given the three-day history and recent flu-like symptoms.

Which class of medications is used to treat female urge incontinence?

Correct! Wrong!

Correct Answer: Antimuscarinics
If symptoms don't go away after bladder training, antimuscarinic drugs like tolterodine and oxybutynin can be used.