ACLS

FREE ACLS Practice Test Question and Answers

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What type of suction catheter offers the most proficient oropharynx and heavy particulate matter suctioning?

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Explanation:
Small holes on the pediatric soft flexible catheter make it unsuitable for sucking up particulates and heavy secretions. Large apertures and a bulb-shaped head of the Yankauer rigid suction catheter enable it to suck viscous secretions and particles from the oropharynx. The laryngeal tube is not a suction catheter; rather, it is an intubation tube.

What justification is inadmissible when doing essential early defibrillation on people who are undergoing sudden cardiac arrest?

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Explanation:
Ventricular fibrillation is a frequent arrhythmia that occurs outside of a medical setting and should be treated with quick defibrillation. The likelihood of a successful defibrillation decreases with delayed defibrillation, which also worsens cardiac electrical disorganization and myocardial ischemia. The absence of significant electrical activity in the heart is known as asystole. Defibrillation has no effect on it because the rhythm is not fibrillating.

Which of the following is assessed as part of the ACLS Survey?

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Explanation:
Deformity is not covered in the ACLS survey, despite the fact that it may offer hints about traumatic injury. Defibrillation is a crucial intervention, but it is not the "D" indicated in the ACLS survey because it falls within the "Circulation" category. Blood pressure is a crucial indication that is significant, yet it is a part of "Circulation". The letter "B" stands for "Breathing" in the ACLS survey. Airway, Breathing, Circulation, and Differential Diagnosis is the acronym for the ACLS survey.

What would you do if you were transferring someone who had suffered a cardiac arrest and it was unable to get them an IV?

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Explanation:
The next best drug delivery method is an intraosseous line, which may be inserted quickly. It is unreliable to absorb following ET tube delivery.

Which of the following should you evaluate according to the BLS Survey?

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Explanation:
Prior to the 2010 amendment of the ILCOR guidelines, the BLS survey, "Airway, Breathing, Circulation," was replaced. The order recommended by the ILCOR 2020 guidelines—responsiveness, activate EMS, procure an AED, circulation, and defibrillation—is the proper one. The BLS poll excludes questions about blood pressure. The BLS survey excludes medicines and cardiac evaluation.

Which of the following is NOT an example of Advanced Airways?

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Explanation:
Advanced airways include the Combitube, laryngeal mask airway (LMA), and endotracheal tube (ET tube). To prevent oral tissues from settling towards the back of the oropharynx and obstructing the airway, the nasopharyngeal airway is utilized. It is not regarded as an advanced airway and is an auxiliary to the airway.

What would you do if a 79-year-old man was in SVT, had a blood pressure of 80/50, complained of chest pain, and wanted to pass out?

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Explanation:
Chest discomfort and hypotension are symptoms this person has. If an IV access is already available, adenosine may be explored while cardioversion preparations are being undertaken. Elderly people may get difficulties from carotid massage.

What doesn't constitute a fundamental airway skill?

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Explanation:
In ACLS and BLS protocols, the fundamental technique for controlling an airway is the head tilt-chin lift. The most common strategy to manage the airway in victims with suspected spinal injuries is a jaw push without cervical spine manipulation. When equipment is available, a fundamental airway technique for two rescuer CPR is bag-mask ventilation. Laryngeal mask intubation (LMA) is an advanced airway management technique and is not regarded as a fundamental airway skill.

Which of the following DOES NOT constitute an essential component of a dynamic resuscitation team?

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Explanation:
When team members repeat instructions to the team leader to ensure that they were received and understood as intended, closed loop communication is present. Effective resuscitation team dynamics include these. Each team member may carry out duties and take responsibility for them when roles and responsibilities are defined. Clear roles and responsibilities for team members avoid overlap and omission, which is crucial for efficient resuscitation team dynamics. A resuscitation team will be less effective if there are multiple team leaders because this leads to overlap and conflict. Effective resuscitation team dynamics depend on each member being aware of their own limitations, which enables tasks and responsibilities to be given to team members who are capable of carrying them out.

What would you do after performing CPR on a person who was in ventricular fibrillation, one attempt at defibrillation, and the person's new rhythm had third-degree AV block?

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Explanation:
For Mobitz Type II second-degree AV block, third-degree AV block, and bradycardia with symptomatic ventricular escape rhythm, transcutaneous pacing is advised.

How long should ACLS practitioners keep interruptions to a minimum when performing chest compressions?

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Explanation:
The 2020 recommendations emphasize keeping breaks from chest compressions to 10 seconds or fewer. The likelihood of brain and heart tissue being damaged by a lack of oxygen rises when chest compressions are stopped. Keeping the heart well-perfused improves both the success of defibrillation and the likelihood that spontaneous circulation may resume.

If a known alcoholic collapses and is discovered to be experiencing torsades de pointes, what course of action would you follow to address the underlying problem?

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Explanation:
Alcoholism and malnutrition are two major causes of hypomagnesemia or low Mg++. Torsades de pointes may be stopped or prevented by the IV administration of magnesium.

The QRS complex on an ECG stands for the following.

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Explanation:
The ventricular contraction shown by the QRS is. The repolarization of the ventricles is represented by the T wave.

What harm might hyperventilation cause?

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Explanation:
During diastole, hyperventilation raises intrathoracic pressure, which reduces venous return to the heart. Preload is reduced as a result, and cardiac output is decreased.

What treatment is prohibited in the case of a 55-year-old male with stroke symptoms and multilobar infarction (affecting more than one-third of the cerebral hemisphere) as seen on a CT scan?

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Explanation:
In severe strokes affecting more than one-third of the cerebral hemisphere, thrombolytic treatment is not recommended.

What is the BLS Chain of Survival's appropriate order?

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Explanation:
Early CPR and defibrillation are the main concerns.