American Board of Psychiatry and Neurology

FREE ABPN MCQ Questions and Answers

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Which of these DOES NOT describe an individual with Autism Spectrum Disorders?

Correct! Wrong!

Explanation:
Delusions are not a characteristic of Autism Spectrum Disorders. A neurological disease called autism is characterized by repetitive activities, poor verbal and nonverbal communication, and impaired social relationships. Conversely, delusions are not a symptom of autism; rather, they are typically linked to psychotic diseases like schizophrenia.

Combining cognitive behavior therapy with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) is superior to either treatment alone for treating severe depressive disorder in pediatric patients.

Correct! Wrong!

Explanation:
When treating major depressive disorder in pediatric patients, cognitive behavior therapy (CBT) and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) is more beneficial than using either treatment alone. This suggests that for pediatric patients with depression, a combination of therapy and medication yields better results and relieves symptoms.

Which of the following SSRIs is NOT highly advised by experts when treating pediatric patients with major depressive disorder?

Correct! Wrong!

Explanation:
Experts do not advise using paroxetine to treat serious depressive disorder in children. This could be because paroxetine has been linked in this demographic to a higher risk of suicide thoughts and actions.

What effects on the neuroanatomy of norepinephrine neurons do amphetamine and methlyphenidate have in addition to changing dopamine levels?

Correct! Wrong!

Explanation:
The neurons in the locus coeruleus NE are engaged in attention and arousal. The therapeutic impact of these psychostimulants is enhanced by their suppression.

What Methylphenidate mediation has an osmotic release and lasts for 12 hours?

Correct! Wrong!

Explanation:
The methylphenidate drug Concerta has an osmotic release mechanism. This system prolongs the medication's effects throughout the day by allowing for a slow and regulated release over a 12-hour period.

Clonidine, sometimes known as catapres, is an option for treating ADHD when stimulant medication causes tics to increase.

Correct! Wrong!

Explanation:
It is advised to think about an alternate course of treatment when stimulant-based treatment, which is frequently used for ADHD, causes an increase in tics. The drug clonidine, commonly marketed under the brand name Catapres, is used to treat the symptoms of ADHD.

Which medication raises dopamine levels in the synaptic cleft?

Correct! Wrong!

Explanation:
Methylphenidate and amphetamine are stimulant medications that increase dopamine levels in the synaptic cleft. They function by preventing dopamine from being reabsorbed, extending its half-life in the synapse.

Which of the following does NOT qualify as a typical, targeted side effect of stimulants?

Correct! Wrong!

Explanation:
Loss of coordination in muscle movements is referred to as ataxia, and it is not usually linked to stimulant usage. Although stimulants usually result in increased energy, attention, and alertness, they can also cause anorexia (lack of appetite), headaches, and mood swings. Ataxia, however, is not a side effect of stimulant usage that is frequently documented.

Which medication prevents dopamine from being taken up from the synaptic cleft by blocking dopamine transporters?

Correct! Wrong!

Explanation:
Amphetamine's MoA depends on altering dopamine vesicle release.

Which of the following claims regarding childhood ADHD is NOT TRUE?

Correct! Wrong!

Explanation:
Higher dose for hyperactive/combined type, lower dose for inattentive form of ADHD.

Which of the following qualities of bupropion (Wellbutrin) is NOT TRUE?

Correct! Wrong!

Explanation:
A mild inhibitor of DA and NE reuptake is bupropion.