The Overseas Registration Examination Part 2 Clinical is a professional certification assessment in United Kingdom. Thorough preparation is essential to demonstrate your knowledge and competency in this field.
Our comprehensive collection of free ORE Part 2 practice questions covers all exam domains and topics. Use these detailed study materials to build confidence and improve your test performance.
Numbers in brackets link to the official sources listed under Sources & last verified. Dates that have passed are removed automatically.
| Item | Detail | Source · Verified |
|---|---|---|
| Time limit (Dental Manikin (DM)) | 3 procedures in 3 hours[1] | General Dental Council · Oct 22, 2026 |
| Time limit (Diagnostic and Treatment Planning (DTP)) | 54 minutes[2] | orepart2.org.uk · Oct 22, 2026 |
| Time limit (Medical Emergencies (ME)) | 13 minutes (8 min structured oral + 5 min BLS)[2] | orepart2.org.uk · Oct 22, 2026 |
| Passing score (OSCE) | Station cut-off set by Borderline Regression (no fixed pass mark)[3] | orepart2.org.uk · Oct 22, 2026 |
| Exam fee | £6,967 per attempt[1] | General Dental Council · Oct 22, 2026 |
| Retake fee (Medical Emergencies (ME) only) | £686 (ME component retake only)[1] | General Dental Council · Oct 22, 2026 |
| Retake policy | Up to 4 attempts; must pass within 5 years of first Part 1 attempt[4] | General Dental Council · Oct 24, 2026 |
| Validity | No time limit to apply for GDC registration after passing[4] | General Dental Council · Oct 24, 2026 |
| Delivery | In person at UCL Eastman Dental Institute, Rockefeller Building[1] | General Dental Council · Oct 22, 2026 |
| Eligibility | Must pass ORE Part 1 first[2] | orepart2.org.uk · Oct 22, 2026 |
| Score release | By email, within 20 working days[1] | General Dental Council · Oct 22, 2026 |
| Next exam date | 26–29 November 2026 (next sitting)[1] | General Dental Council · Oct 22, 2026 |
| Registration opens | Booking opens 8 weeks before each sitting via the candidate's online account (first come, first served)[5] | General Dental Council · Oct 22, 2026 |
Important: The ORE Part 2 examination requires thorough understanding of all core subject areas. Review the official UK exam guidelines and ensure you meet all eligibility requirements before scheduling your test date.
According to General Dental Council, “The OSCE uses the Borderline Regression method of standard setting to establish a cut-off score for each station.”[3]
The content areas below are copied from the official ORE Part 2 content outline published by General Dental Council. The right-hand column shows which of our practice sets covers it.
| Official content area | Practice on this site |
|---|---|
| Diagnostic and treatment planning exercise (DTP)[1] | ORE Part 2 Clinical Skills Assessment Practise reaching a clear diagnosis from the findings and then presenting a sequenced, justified treatment plan within the time allowed. |
| Medical emergencies (ME)[1] | ORE Part 2 NHS Dental Contracts & Medical ... Rehearse recognising and managing common surgery emergencies out loud, including basic life support, in a calm and ordered way. |
| Objective Structured Clinical Examination (OSCE)[1] | ORE Part 2 Patient Management Practise communication, consent, ethics and patient management scenarios, since each station is judged against its own cut-off. |
| Operative test on a dental manikin[1] | ORE Part 2 Restorative Dentistry Revise the clinical reasoning behind restorative, endodontic and prosthetic procedures so your technique is planned before you start cutting. |
Prepare for the ORE Part 2 - Overseas Registration Examination exam with our free practice test modules. Each quiz covers key topics to help you pass on your first try.
These are practice questions written for this site, not questions from the real exam. Each explanation shows why the right answer is right and why the others are wrong.
Question: What is the recommended management of hypoglycaemia in a conscious diabetic patient in the dental surgery?
Answer: A. 15–20 g of fast-acting carbohydrate orally (e.g., glucose gel, sugary drink), repeat if no improvement in 15 min
Explanation:
The right answer is A. A conscious patient can swallow, so fast-acting oral carbohydrate such as glucose gel or a sugary drink is the safest and quickest treatment, and it is repeated if there is no improvement after 15 min. Glucagon IM only is wrong because it is kept for patients who cannot safely take anything by mouth. IV dextrose as first line is wrong because it needs venous access and is not the starting point for a patient who is alert. Calling 999 immediately with no oral treatment is wrong because it delays simple treatment that works. The rule to remember: treat by the route the patient can safely use, starting with the least invasive effective option, and escalate only if they do not respond.
Question: What legal principle was established by the Montgomery v Lanarkshire Health Board (2015) ruling relevant to dental consent?
Answer: A. Patients must be informed of all material risks relevant to them as individuals
Explanation:
The right answer is A. Montgomery v Lanarkshire Health Board (2015) moved consent towards the individual patient: you must disclose material risks that matter to that person, and to a reasonable patient in their position. B is wrong because a reasonable doctor standard is the older approach that Montgomery replaced. C is wrong because disclosure is not limited to life-threatening risks; a less serious risk can still be material to a particular patient, for example because of their job or hobbies. D is wrong because verbal consent is not always enough, and the quality of the discussion matters more than the form. The rule to remember: ask what this patient would want to know, and record the conversation.
Question: What splint duration is recommended following lateral luxation of a permanent incisor?
Answer: A. 4 weeks with a semi-rigid splint
Explanation:
The right answer is A. After lateral luxation of a permanent incisor, a semi-rigid splint for 4 weeks holds the tooth steady while the periodontal ligament heals, and it still allows a little physiological movement. B is wrong because 2 weeks is too short for healing and a rigid splint raises the risk of ankylosis. C is wrong because 8 weeks with a rigid splint over-immobilises the tooth, which is the thing that encourages ankylosis. D is wrong because a displaced tooth that has been repositioned needs support while it heals. The rule to remember: splint type and duration depend on the injury, and prolonged rigid splinting usually does more harm than good.
Start with the official material. Read the exam specification and the OSCE guidance from the exam body so you know what each component asks of you, then use the practice sets to find where your knowledge is thin.
Begin with the general free ORE Part 2 practice test to get a baseline. Note which topics cost you marks, and rank them. Then work through the topic sets in that order, for example medical emergencies, dental law and ethics and restorative dentistry. After each set, read every explanation, including those for questions you got right, and write the general rule in your own words.
Our questions are written by us and are not real exam questions, so use them to test understanding rather than to predict what appears on the day. Because the practical components are timed, practise saying your answers aloud and keep to the time for each one. For medical emergencies, rehearse your spoken sequence until it is steady. For the manikin, plan each procedure before you begin.
In the final stretch, return to the sets where you scored lowest and repeat them, then check the GDC website once more for sitting dates and booking details.
Join thousands of candidates who have used our free practice tests to prepare for the Overseas Registration Examination Part 2 Clinical. Start practising today and build the confidence you need to succeed.
For more in-depth preparation strategies, read our PELLET B Test Scoring and Preparation — covering exam format, scoring, and proven study techniques.
Try these questions from our free ORE Part 2 practice tests. The correct answer and an explanation follow each question.
What is the maximum period a dentist can prescribe a Schedule 2 controlled drug (e.g., midazolam) for in the UK?
Answer: D. 30 days
In the UK, prescriptions for Schedule 2, 3, and 4 controlled drugs are valid for 28 days from the date on the prescription. The prescription must be written in indelible ink, include the patient's full name and address, the total quantity in words and figures, and be signed and dated by the prescriber. Dentists can prescribe controlled drugs within their competence.
What is the clinical presentation of a dentigerous cyst in a child and what is its most common associated tooth?
Answer: A. Radiolucency around the crown of an unerupted tooth, most commonly the lower third molar or canine
A dentigerous cyst envelops the crown of an unerupted tooth (>3 mm pericoronal space) and is most frequently found associated with lower third molars, upper canines, or lower premolars.
What is the role of pit and fissure sealants in preventing caries in first permanent molars?
Answer: A. Seal the occlusal fissures to prevent biofilm accumulation in susceptible areas
Pit and fissure sealants physically block the pits and fissures of newly erupted molars, preventing bacterial colonisation in these caries-susceptible areas; most effective when placed promptly after eruption.
Which articulator type is required for the most accurate transfer of patient jaw relationships in complex prosthodontics?
Answer: A. Fully adjustable (Denar, Whip Mix) with face-bow record
Fully adjustable articulators with a face-bow transfer accurately replicate the patient's condylar angles and hinge axis, essential for complex restorative and complete denture cases.
How we verify: editorial & fact-checking policy. Report an error: contact us.