ORE Part 2 – Overseas Registration Examination (GDC) — Questions and Answers

Question 1: What is the maximum period a dentist can prescribe a Schedule 2 controlled drug (e.g., midazolam) for in the UK?

14 days
28 days
7 days
30 days (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 30 days

In the UK, prescriptions for Schedule 2, 3, and 4 controlled drugs are valid for 28 days from the date on the prescription. The prescription must be written in indelible ink, include the patient's full name and address, the total quantity in words and figures, and be signed and dated by the prescriber. Dentists can prescribe controlled drugs within their competence.

Question 2: Under the Mental Capacity Act 2005, who should make decisions for a patient who lacks capacity?

A decision-maker acting in the patient's best interests, consulting those close to the patient (Correct answer)
The patient's GP alone
The practice principal
The most senior dental nurse

Correct answer: A decision-maker acting in the patient's best interests, consulting those close to the patient

When a patient lacks capacity, decisions must be made in their best interests by the treating clinician, in consultation with those close to the patient, and following the principles of the MCA 2005.

Question 3: What is the difference between 'urgent' and 'emergency' NHS dental treatment?

They are identical
Emergency is only for trauma; urgent is for caries
Emergency requires hospital; urgent can be in practice
Emergency relieves severe pain/acute infection immediately; urgent is treatment needed promptly but not immediately life-threatening (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Emergency relieves severe pain/acute infection immediately; urgent is treatment needed promptly but not immediately life-threatening

Emergency dental treatment addresses acute, potentially life-threatening conditions (e.g., Ludwig's angina, airway compromise); urgent dental care manages acute pain and infection that requires prompt treatment within hours to days.

Question 4: What is the correct management of a patient who collapses with a witnessed cardiac arrest in a dental surgery?

Perform precordial thump first in all cases
Start CPR without calling 999
Give adrenaline before starting CPR
Call 999, start CPR (30:2), use the AED as soon as available, continue until help arrives (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Call 999, start CPR (30:2), use the AED as soon as available, continue until help arrives

Cardiac arrest management: call for help/999 immediately, commence CPR at 30:2, attach and use the AED as soon as available, and continue until emergency services arrive.

Question 5: What is the primary goal of the 'Step 1' in the BSP four-step periodontal treatment model?

Supportive periodontal therapy
Subgingival debridement under local anaesthesia
Patient education, risk factor modification, and supra-gingival biofilm removal (Correct answer)
Periodontal surgery

Correct answer: Patient education, risk factor modification, and supra-gingival biofilm removal

Step 1 focuses on patient education, oral hygiene instruction, risk factor management (e.g., smoking cessation), and professional removal of supra-gingival plaque and calculus.

Question 6: What is the correct inhaled dose of salbutamol for an acute mild-to-moderate asthma attack?

Nebulised only — inhaler not appropriate
2–10 puffs of 100 mcg salbutamol via spacer (Correct answer)
One puff only
2 mg oral tablet

Correct answer: 2–10 puffs of 100 mcg salbutamol via spacer

For mild-to-moderate acute asthma in the dental surgery, 2–10 puffs of salbutamol (100 mcg per puff) via a spacer device are recommended, allowing reassessment between administrations.

Question 7: What is the recommended recall interval for bitewing radiographs in a caries-free low-risk adult patient?

Every 2 years (Correct answer)
Every 5 years
Every 6 months
Annually

Correct answer: Every 2 years

FGDP(UK) radiographic guidelines recommend 2-yearly bitewing radiographs for low-risk adult patients with posterior tooth contacts and no recent caries, balancing diagnostic benefit against radiation dose.

Question 8: Which surgical technique is most appropriate for treating an infrabony defect with a three-wall configuration?

Guided tissue regeneration (GTR) or enamel matrix derivative application (Correct answer)
Apically repositioned flap
Free gingival graft
Gingivectomy

Correct answer: Guided tissue regeneration (GTR) or enamel matrix derivative application

Three-wall (contained) infrabony defects have the best prognosis for regenerative therapy. Guided tissue regeneration (using a barrier membrane) or enamel matrix derivative (Emdogain) application can achieve new attachment formation including new cementum, periodontal ligament, and alveolar bone. The three-wall morphology provides natural containment for the regenerative material.

Question 9: Which feature best distinguishes symptomatic irreversible pulpitis from reversible pulpitis?

Spontaneous pain and lingering pain after stimulus removal (Correct answer)
Sharp pain on cold stimulation
Sensitivity to sweet foods only
Mild aching aggravated by biting

Correct answer: Spontaneous pain and lingering pain after stimulus removal

Symptomatic irreversible pulpitis is characterised by spontaneous pain and pain that lingers for 30 seconds or more after removal of the stimulus, indicating irreversible pulpal damage.

Question 10: What is the purpose of an automated external defibrillator (AED) and when should it be used?

Only used by paramedics
Used after 10 minutes of CPR only
Delivers an electric shock to restore normal rhythm in ventricular fibrillation or pulseless VT — use as soon as available (Correct answer)
Used in all cardiac arrests regardless of rhythm

Correct answer: Delivers an electric shock to restore normal rhythm in ventricular fibrillation or pulseless VT — use as soon as available

AEDs analyse cardiac rhythm and deliver a shock for shockable rhythms (VF/pulseless VT); they should be applied and used as soon as available during cardiac arrest, as early defibrillation dramatically improves survival.

Question 11: Which radiographic appearance is most characteristic of a chronic apical periodontitis lesion?

Diffuse periapical radiopacity with loss of lamina dura
Widening of the periodontal ligament space alone
Round radiolucent defect within the root canal space
Well-defined radiolucency at the root apex (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Well-defined radiolucency at the root apex

Chronic apical periodontitis presents as a well-defined (or sometimes ill-defined) periapical radiolucency representing bone destruction secondary to chronic infection from a necrotic pulp.

Question 12: What is the 'steroid cover' protocol for a dental patient on long-term oral corticosteroids (prednisolone ≥ 5 mg/day) undergoing a stressful extraction?

Continue usual dose; double the dose on day of procedure if on ≤ 10 mg/day; seek medical advice for complex cases (Correct answer)
No extra steroid is needed for dental procedures
Stop steroids 24 hours before
Always give 100 mg hydrocortisone IM before every procedure

Correct answer: Continue usual dose; double the dose on day of procedure if on ≤ 10 mg/day; seek medical advice for complex cases

Current UK guidance advises continuing usual steroids; for minor procedures, no supplementation is needed for most; for major stressful procedures, medical advice should be sought; the previous routine doubling protocol is evolving based on evidence.

Question 13: What constitutes a 'never event' in NHS dental practice?

Any adverse outcome regardless of preventability
A serious, largely preventable patient safety incident (e.g., wrong tooth extraction) that should not occur if standards are followed (Correct answer)
A minor clinical error only
Any patient complaint

Correct answer: A serious, largely preventable patient safety incident (e.g., wrong tooth extraction) that should not occur if standards are followed

NHS Never Events are specific, serious, preventable patient safety incidents (e.g., wrong tooth extracted) that should never occur if national guidelines and safety systems are followed correctly.

Question 14: According to the 2017 World Workshop classification, what defines Stage III periodontitis?

Complete loss of attachment with spontaneous tooth exfoliation
Interdental CAL ≥5mm, radiographic bone loss extending to the middle third of the root, and potential for tooth loss (Correct answer)
Gingivitis with bleeding on probing only
Interdental CAL of 1–2mm at site of greatest loss

Correct answer: Interdental CAL ≥5mm, radiographic bone loss extending to the middle third of the root, and potential for tooth loss

Stage III periodontitis is defined by interdental clinical attachment loss (CAL) of 5mm or more, radiographic bone loss extending to the middle third of the root or beyond, and complexity factors including furcation involvement (Class II or III), moderate ridge defects, and potential for tooth loss. It represents severe periodontitis with increasing complexity of management.

Question 15: What is the GDC requirement regarding dental professionals reporting a change in circumstances (e.g., criminal charge)?

Only required if convicted
Only required if the charge is dental-related
Must self-report any caution, charge, or conviction to GDC promptly (Correct answer)
No requirement to self-report

Correct answer: Must self-report any caution, charge, or conviction to GDC promptly

GDC Standard 9 requires registrants to display honesty and integrity, which includes promptly self-reporting any cautions, charges, or convictions that may be relevant to fitness to practise.

Question 16: What is the most appropriate management of an uncomplicated crown fracture (enamel only) in a permanent upper central incisor in a 10-year-old?

Root canal treatment
Extract and provide implant
Smooth sharp edges; apply dentine bonding agent if dentine exposed; monitor pulp vitality (Correct answer)
Immediate crown preparation

Correct answer: Smooth sharp edges; apply dentine bonding agent if dentine exposed; monitor pulp vitality

Uncomplicated enamel fractures require smoothing of sharp edges, protection of any exposed dentine with bonding agent or glass ionomer, and regular vitality monitoring given the open apex.

Question 17: What is the maximum period of time for which dental records must be retained for adult patients in the UK?

Indefinitely for all patients
5 years
11 years from the date of last treatment (or to age 25 if patient was under 17) (Correct answer)
3 years

Correct answer: 11 years from the date of last treatment (or to age 25 if patient was under 17)

The retention period for adult dental records in England and Wales is 11 years from the last episode of care; for patients treated as children, records must be kept until age 25 or 11 years, whichever is longer.

Question 18: During a clinical skills assessment, a patient presents with a fractured upper central incisor involving enamel and dentine but with no pulp exposure. What is the most appropriate immediate management?

Perform elective root canal treatment before restoration
Place a stainless steel crown
Extract the tooth and plan a bridge
Place a calcium hydroxide liner and restore with composite resin (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Place a calcium hydroxide liner and restore with composite resin

For an uncomplicated crown fracture involving enamel and dentine without pulp exposure, the correct management is to place a calcium hydroxide liner over the exposed dentine to promote reparative dentine formation, followed by a definitive composite restoration to seal the tooth and restore aesthetics and function.

Question 19: What is the recommended action if a dental professional suspects a child is being abused or neglected?

Discuss the concern with other patients for advice
Document the findings and refer to local safeguarding services or social care, following the practice's safeguarding policy (Correct answer)
Confront the parent directly during the appointment
Wait for the child to disclose abuse before taking action

Correct answer: Document the findings and refer to local safeguarding services or social care, following the practice's safeguarding policy

Dental professionals have a duty of care to report suspected child abuse or neglect. The correct procedure is to document clinical findings objectively (including intraoral and extraoral injuries), follow the practice's safeguarding policy, and make a referral to local authority children's social care or the NSPCC. The GDC Standards require registrants to take action to protect vulnerable patients.

Question 20: What is the recommended action when a dentist discovers that a colleague has committed a prescribing error that harmed a patient?

Report directly to police only
Report via practice incident reporting system, ensure patient is informed under duty of candour, escalate to GDC if patient safety is at ongoing risk (Correct answer)
Do nothing to avoid conflict
Discuss only within the practice without informing the patient

Correct answer: Report via practice incident reporting system, ensure patient is informed under duty of candour, escalate to GDC if patient safety is at ongoing risk

Errors causing patient harm trigger both duty of candour (inform patient) and duty to raise concerns (incident reporting, and GDC reporting if ongoing risk exists), as per GDC Standards.

Question 21: What is the significance of the Bolam test in UK dental negligence cases?

A dentist is not negligent if they act in accordance with a responsible body of dental opinion (Correct answer)
It sets the standard for consent disclosure
It defines fitness to practise
It applies only to specialist practice

Correct answer: A dentist is not negligent if they act in accordance with a responsible body of dental opinion

The Bolam test (Bolam v Friern Hospital Management Committee, 1957) establishes that a clinician is not negligent if their conduct is consistent with the practice of a responsible body of their peers, though this no longer applies to consent (see Montgomery).

Question 22: When assessing a tooth for a crown, which finding is an absolute contraindication?

Non-restorable caries extending below the alveolar crest (Correct answer)
Absence of opposing occlusion
Mild sensitivity to cold
Patient preference for composite

Correct answer: Non-restorable caries extending below the alveolar crest

If caries or tooth destruction extends below the alveolar crest with insufficient ferrule, the tooth cannot be adequately restored with a crown.

Question 23: What is the difference between 'assault' and 'battery' in the context of dental treatment without consent?

Battery is unauthorised physical contact (treatment without consent); assault is the threat of such contact (Correct answer)
Only assault applies to dental practice
They are identical in dental practice
Battery is verbal; assault is physical

Correct answer: Battery is unauthorised physical contact (treatment without consent); assault is the threat of such contact

In UK law, battery is unlawful physical contact (e.g., treating without valid consent), while assault is causing someone to apprehend imminent unlawful force; both are relevant when dental treatment is performed without consent.

Question 24: What is the difference between a tooth-supported and a tooth-mucosa-supported RPD?

They are identical in design
Tooth-supported dentures have no clasps
Mucosa-supported dentures cannot have rests
Tooth-supported has rests on both sides of each saddle; tooth-mucosa-supported has free-end saddles with mucosa bearing load distally (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Tooth-supported has rests on both sides of each saddle; tooth-mucosa-supported has free-end saddles with mucosa bearing load distally

In tooth-supported RPDs, all saddles are bounded by rests; tooth-mucosa-supported dentures have free-end saddles where the distal load is borne by the ridge mucosa, requiring different design considerations.

Question 25: What is the significance of a sinus tract (parulis) associated with a primary molar?

Indicates reversible pulpitis
Normal eruption sign
Indicates chronic periapical or furcation abscess; extraction usually required (Correct answer)
Only requires antibiotic treatment

Correct answer: Indicates chronic periapical or furcation abscess; extraction usually required

A parulis/sinus tract indicates chronic dentoalveolar infection; in primary teeth, extraction is typically preferred to protect the permanent successor from spreading infection.

Question 26: What is the purpose of a 'Significant Event Analysis (SEA)' in a dental practice?

Structured review of an adverse event to identify learning points and prevent recurrence (Correct answer)
Documenting all significant treatments
Reporting to the GDC directly
Annual practice audit

Correct answer: Structured review of an adverse event to identify learning points and prevent recurrence

SEA is a quality improvement tool used to reflect on adverse events (significant events) in a structured way, identifying what happened, why, and what changes can prevent recurrence.

Question 27: What are a dentist's obligations under the Children Act 1989 regarding safeguarding?

Only required if parents give consent to refer
The obligation is discretionary
Duty to refer to children's services if there are concerns about abuse or neglect; child's welfare is paramount (Correct answer)
Only if the dentist witnesses abuse directly

Correct answer: Duty to refer to children's services if there are concerns about abuse or neglect; child's welfare is paramount

Under the Children Act 1989 and related statutory guidance, dental professionals have a duty to act on safeguarding concerns; the child's welfare is the paramount consideration, overriding confidentiality.

Question 28: A child has an avulsed permanent upper central incisor (open apex). What is the maximum out-of-socket time for a favourable reimplantation prognosis?

Less than 60 minutes, ideally under 15–20 minutes (Correct answer)
Time out of socket is not relevant
Up to 2 hours
Less than 24 hours

Correct answer: Less than 60 minutes, ideally under 15–20 minutes

For optimal PDL cell viability, reimplantation should occur within 20–30 minutes (dry storage). After 60 minutes dry storage, PDL cells are non-viable, though reimplantation may still be attempted for bone preservation.

Question 29: What is the most appropriate management of a broken flange on a cobalt-chromium partial denture?

Extract teeth adjacent to break
Attempt chair-side cold cure acrylic repair
Replace with a new denture immediately
Return to laboratory for repair; assess whether the denture framework is intact (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Return to laboratory for repair; assess whether the denture framework is intact

A broken acrylic flange on a cobalt-chromium denture should be repaired in the laboratory to ensure correct fit and surface finish; chair-side acrylic repairs are generally inadequate long-term.

Question 30: What is the first-line active treatment for Stage II periodontitis according to current BSP guidelines?

Surgical pocket elimination
Referral to a periodontist immediately
Cause-related therapy: oral hygiene instruction and subgingival debridement (Correct answer)
Systemic antibiotics alone

Correct answer: Cause-related therapy: oral hygiene instruction and subgingival debridement

BSP guidelines prioritise non-surgical cause-related therapy, including thorough oral hygiene instruction and subgingival instrumentation, as the first step in managing Stage II periodontitis.

ORE Part 2 – Overseas Registration Examination (GDC)

The GDC Overseas Registration Examination Part 2 is a clinical assessment for overseas-qualified dentists seeking registration in the UK, testing practical skills across OSCE stations, dental manikin operative procedures, diagnosis & treatment planning, and medical emergencies.

100

Questions

120 min

Time Limit

70%

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These practice questions were written with AI tools. They are not real exam questions. Exam facts are checked against the official sources listed below. Not reviewed by a subject-matter expert. Editorial policy

Sources & references

Exam facts on this page (fees, format, dates, passing scores) are checked against these official sources; the date is our last check. Editorial policy

gdc-uk.org — Test delivery, exam dates, fees, retake fee, score release, time limit, retake policy, score validity, registration, exam information · verified Nov 2026
orepart2.org.uk — Eligibility, time limit, passing score · verified Oct 2026