ORE Part 2 – Overseas Registration Examination (GDC) — Questions and Answers

Question 1: Which radiograph is recommended before lower third molar surgery to assess root-IAN proximity?

OPG only
CBCT when periapical shows intimate contact (Correct answer)
Periapical alone
Lateral cephalogram

Correct answer: CBCT when periapical shows intimate contact

CBCT is indicated when OPG/periapical radiographs show signs of intimate root-IAN contact (e.g., root narrowing, canal interruption, darkening), providing accurate 3D assessment to plan surgery safely.

Question 2: What is the most common site for an odontogenic keratocyst (OKC)?

Maxillary anterior region
Posterior mandible, often associated with unerupted third molar (Correct answer)
Mandibular symphysis
Maxillary sinus

Correct answer: Posterior mandible, often associated with unerupted third molar

Odontogenic keratocysts most commonly occur in the posterior mandible and are frequently associated with impacted lower third molars, presenting as a well-defined radiolucency.

Question 3: What does the term 'critical probing depth' refer to in periodontal treatment planning?

The probing depth indicating immediate extraction
The maximum safe probing force
The BPE threshold for referral
The pocket depth at which surgery is more effective than non-surgical debridement (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The pocket depth at which surgery is more effective than non-surgical debridement

The critical probing depth (approximately 5–6 mm) is the threshold at which surgical therapy provides greater benefit than non-surgical debridement in reducing pocket depth.

Question 4: During a clinical skills assessment, what is the correct working length for root canal preparation?

Exactly at the radiographic apex
At the cemento-dentinal junction, confirmed with an electronic apex locator (Correct answer)
0.5–1mm short of the radiographic apex
2mm beyond the radiographic apex

Correct answer: At the cemento-dentinal junction, confirmed with an electronic apex locator

The ideal working length is at the cemento-dentinal junction (CDJ), which is typically 0.5–1mm short of the radiographic apex. Electronic apex locators provide the most accurate determination of the CDJ position. Working beyond this point into the periapical tissues causes unnecessary damage and poor obturation seal.

Question 5: Which document must be available in a dental practice to comply with Regulation 12 of the Health and Social Care Act 2008?

Evidence of systems to assess, monitor, and mitigate risks to patient safety (clinical governance framework) (Correct answer)
NHS contract documentation only
Only a CQC registration certificate
Annual financial accounts

Correct answer: Evidence of systems to assess, monitor, and mitigate risks to patient safety (clinical governance framework)

Regulation 12 requires providers to have effective systems for assessing, monitoring, and mitigating risks to patient safety, including infection control policies, risk assessments, and incident reporting procedures.

Question 6: What does 'probity' mean in the context of GDC Standards?

Clinical competence only
Honesty, integrity, and trustworthiness in all professional and personal conduct relevant to practice (Correct answer)
Completing all required documentation
Managing patient finances

Correct answer: Honesty, integrity, and trustworthiness in all professional and personal conduct relevant to practice

Probity (GDC Standard 9) requires dental professionals to be honest, trustworthy, and to display integrity in all matters — including finances, research, and interactions with colleagues and patients.

Question 7: What does the acronym SBARR stand for in clinical handover communication?

Symptoms, Background, Audit, Report, Review
Situation, Brief, Action, Risk, Report
Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation, Readback (Correct answer)
Safety, Background, Action, Response, Record

Correct answer: Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation, Readback

SBARR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation, Readback) is a structured communication tool used during clinical handover to ensure accurate, complete transfer of patient information.

Question 8: What is the recommended treatment for a pulp-exposed primary molar in a symptom-free child with a carious exposure?

Direct pulp cap only
Pulpotomy with Biodentine or formocresol, followed by stainless steel crown (Correct answer)
Extraction always
Root canal treatment (pulpectomy) as first choice

Correct answer: Pulpotomy with Biodentine or formocresol, followed by stainless steel crown

Pulpotomy (amputation of coronal pulp with placement of a medicament and SSC) is the first-line treatment for carious pulp exposure in symptom-free primary molars in cooperative children.

Question 9: What is the primary purpose of posterior palatal seal in a complete upper denture?

Aid in pronunciation
Reduce palate coverage
Maintain peripheral seal and retention (Correct answer)
Prevent over-extension posteriorly

Correct answer: Maintain peripheral seal and retention

The posterior palatal seal (post dam) creates a continuous seal at the junction of the hard and soft palate, preventing air entry and improving denture retention by suction.

Question 10: What emergency drug must all dental practices in the UK stock according to Resuscitation Council and GDC guidelines?

Atropine
Digoxin
Adrenaline 1:1000 (IM) (Correct answer)
Heparin

Correct answer: Adrenaline 1:1000 (IM)

Adrenaline 1:1000 for IM injection is the single most important emergency drug required in all dental practices, primarily for the management of anaphylaxis.

Question 11: In the context of dental ethics, what does the principle of 'non-maleficence' mean?

Fair distribution of resources
Do good to the patient
Do no harm; avoid treatments that cause unnecessary risk or suffering (Correct answer)
Respect the patient's autonomy

Correct answer: Do no harm; avoid treatments that cause unnecessary risk or suffering

Non-maleficence ('do no harm') obligates dental professionals to avoid causing unnecessary harm through their interventions, weighing risks against benefits for each treatment.

Question 12: When assessing a patient's existing dentures prior to replacement, which feature is most important to preserve in the new dentures?

The adapted neutral zone (polished surface form) (Correct answer)
The tooth colour
The border extension
The weight of the denture

Correct answer: The adapted neutral zone (polished surface form)

The polished surface form that the patient has adapted to represents the neutral zone; preserving this in the new denture reduces the adaptation time and improves comfort and stability.

Question 13: A patient with severe dental anxiety refuses treatment despite being in pain. What is the most appropriate initial approach?

Refer for general anaesthetic immediately
Use cognitive behavioural techniques, discuss sedation options, and develop a graded treatment plan (Correct answer)
Prescribe antibiotics and discharge
Insist on treatment as it is in their best interest

Correct answer: Use cognitive behavioural techniques, discuss sedation options, and develop a graded treatment plan

A patient-centred approach involves acknowledging the patient's anxiety, using evidence-based psychological techniques (CBT, relaxation, Tell-Show-Do), discussing conscious sedation options (inhalation or IV), and developing a graded exposure plan starting with less invasive procedures. Forcing treatment violates autonomy and is ethically unacceptable.

Question 14: What is the GDC's definition of 'fitness to practise'?

Only clinical skill level
A registrant's physical health status
A registrant's ability to practise safely and effectively, encompassing competence, health, conduct, and honesty (Correct answer)
Their CPD completion record

Correct answer: A registrant's ability to practise safely and effectively, encompassing competence, health, conduct, and honesty

Fitness to practise encompasses clinical competence, health, character (conduct and behaviour), and probity (honesty), all of which the GDC monitors through its fitness to practise procedures.

Question 15: Which drug reverses the effects of benzodiazepine oversedation in conscious sedation emergencies?

Flumazenil (Correct answer)
Midazolam itself at higher dose
Naloxone
Glucagon

Correct answer: Flumazenil

Flumazenil is the specific benzodiazepine receptor antagonist that reverses benzodiazepine-induced sedation and respiratory depression, used in sedation emergencies.

Question 16: What is the legal framework governing the prescription of controlled drugs by dentists in the UK?

Misuse of Drugs Act 1971 and Misuse of Drugs Regulations 2001 (Correct answer)
Dentists Act 1984
Human Medicines Regulations 2012
Medicines Act 1968 only

Correct answer: Misuse of Drugs Act 1971 and Misuse of Drugs Regulations 2001

Controlled drugs are regulated by the Misuse of Drugs Act 1971 and the associated Regulations 2001, which classify drugs (Schedules 1–5) and govern prescribing, storage, and record-keeping by dentists.

Question 17: Which UK legislation governs the safe disposal of clinical waste from dental practices?

Health and Safety at Work Act 1974 only
Environmental Protection Act 1990 and Controlled Waste Regulations (Correct answer)
The Dentists Act 1984
COSHH Regulations

Correct answer: Environmental Protection Act 1990 and Controlled Waste Regulations

Clinical waste disposal is governed primarily by the Environmental Protection Act 1990 and the Controlled Waste Regulations, requiring dental practices to use licensed waste contractors and properly segregate waste.

Question 18: When taking a dental impression for a crown, which impression material provides the best dimensional accuracy?

Addition-cured silicone (polyvinyl siloxane) (Correct answer)
Zinc oxide eugenol impression paste
Alginate (irreversible hydrocolloid)
Compound impression material

Correct answer: Addition-cured silicone (polyvinyl siloxane)

Addition-cured silicone (polyvinyl siloxane/PVS) provides the highest dimensional accuracy and stability among impression materials. It has excellent elastic recovery, very low shrinkage, and can be poured at a later time without significant dimensional change, making it the material of choice for crown and bridge impressions.

Question 19: What is the recommended recall interval for bitewing radiographs in a caries-free low-risk adult patient?

Every 5 years
Every 2 years (Correct answer)
Annually
Every 6 months

Correct answer: Every 2 years

FGDP(UK) radiographic guidelines recommend 2-yearly bitewing radiographs for low-risk adult patients with posterior tooth contacts and no recent caries, balancing diagnostic benefit against radiation dose.

Question 20: What is an 'NHS Band 3' dental treatment course in England?

Basic examinations only
Emergency treatment only
Fillings and X-rays
The most complex NHS band, including crowns, dentures, bridges, and complex treatments (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The most complex NHS band, including crowns, dentures, bridges, and complex treatments

NHS Band 3 covers the most complex treatments including crowns, inlays, bridges, dentures, and root canal therapy, attracting the highest patient charge and UDA allocation.

Question 21: What should be documented following a medical emergency in the dental practice?

Full contemporaneous record: time, events, vital signs, drugs given, doses, personnel, outcome, and referral (Correct answer)
No documentation required if resolved
Simply note 'medical emergency' in the record
Drug name only

Correct answer: Full contemporaneous record: time, events, vital signs, drugs given, doses, personnel, outcome, and referral

A full record of the medical emergency must be made contemporaneously, including timeline, all treatments, drugs with doses and routes, personnel present, patient response, and any referral or ambulance called.

Question 22: What is the legal significance of the Dental Defence Unions (e.g., DDU, MPS) in UK dental practice?

They replace GDC registration
They only cover NHS dentists
They are government bodies
They provide indemnity, legal advice, and support for regulatory and civil proceedings — membership satisfies GDC indemnity requirement (Correct answer)

Correct answer: They provide indemnity, legal advice, and support for regulatory and civil proceedings — membership satisfies GDC indemnity requirement

Dental Defence Organisations (DDU, MPS, MDDUS) provide professional indemnity that satisfies the GDC registration requirement, along with legal representation, advice, and support for complaints and FtP cases.

Question 23: A patient collapses in the dental chair with chest pain radiating to the left arm and jaw. After calling 999, what is the immediate management while awaiting the ambulance?

Continue dental treatment to finish quickly
Sit the patient upright, give aspirin 300mg to chew, and GTN spray if available and BP adequate (Correct answer)
Give intramuscular adrenaline
Lay the patient flat and elevate the legs

Correct answer: Sit the patient upright, give aspirin 300mg to chew, and GTN spray if available and BP adequate

The signs suggest acute myocardial infarction. After calling 999, sit the patient in a comfortable position (often upright or semi-recumbent), give 300mg aspirin to chew (unless allergic), administer GTN spray sublingually if the systolic BP is above 90mmHg, and provide supplemental oxygen if SpO2 is below 94%. Monitor and be prepared to commence CPR if the patient arrests.

Question 24: Which condition contraindicates the use of adrenaline-containing local anaesthetic in a dental patient?

Asthma
Well-controlled hypertension
Type 2 diabetes
Uncontrolled phaeochromocytoma (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Uncontrolled phaeochromocytoma

Phaeochromocytoma is a catecholamine-secreting tumour; exogenous adrenaline can trigger a hypertensive crisis, making it an absolute contraindication.

Question 25: What is the histological composition of a periodontal pocket wall?

Keratinised gingival epithelium
Healthy stratified squamous epithelium
Ulcerated junctional epithelium with dense inflammatory cell infiltrate (Correct answer)
Cementum and PDL fibres only

Correct answer: Ulcerated junctional epithelium with dense inflammatory cell infiltrate

The pocket wall consists of ulcerated pocket epithelium with a dense chronic inflammatory infiltrate (predominantly plasma cells and lymphocytes) in the adjacent connective tissue.

Question 26: Which base material provides the greatest thermal insulation under a metallic restoration?

Resin-modified glass ionomer
Calcium silicate cement
Zinc oxide eugenol cement (Correct answer)
Zinc phosphate cement

Correct answer: Zinc oxide eugenol cement

Zinc oxide eugenol has sedative properties and low thermal conductivity, making it an effective base for thermal insulation under metal restorations.

Question 27: What is the recommended minimum connector width for a chrome cobalt palatal strap in an upper RPD?

12mm
4mm
8mm or greater (Correct answer)
6mm

Correct answer: 8mm or greater

A chrome cobalt palatal strap should be at least 8mm wide (though 8–12mm is typical) to provide adequate rigidity while maintaining patient comfort. The strap design is less tissue coverage than a full palatal plate and is well-tolerated when properly designed. If made too narrow, it loses rigidity and feels like a wire pressing against the palate.

Question 28: What is 'Gillick competence' and how does it apply in dental practice?

A minor under 16 who fully understands the nature and implications of treatment can consent independently (Correct answer)
Parents must always consent for children under 18
Children under 16 can never consent
Only applies to contraception, not dentistry

Correct answer: A minor under 16 who fully understands the nature and implications of treatment can consent independently

Gillick competence allows children under 16 to consent to their own treatment if the clinician is satisfied they fully understand the treatment, its risks, and consequences without needing parental consent.

Question 29: What is the difference between Type 1 and Type 2 respiratory failure in the context of a dental emergency?

Type 1: hypoxaemia with normal CO2 (e.g., acute asthma); Type 2: hypoxaemia with raised CO2 (e.g., COPD) (Correct answer)
Type 2 occurs only with cardiac arrest
They are identical in management
Type 1 is more severe than Type 2

Correct answer: Type 1: hypoxaemia with normal CO2 (e.g., acute asthma); Type 2: hypoxaemia with raised CO2 (e.g., COPD)

Type 1 respiratory failure (low O2, normal CO2) occurs in conditions like acute asthma; Type 2 (low O2, high CO2) occurs in COPD exacerbations — management differs, particularly oxygen dose in COPD.

Question 30: What is the recommended occlusal reduction for a full-coverage porcelain-fused-to-metal (PFM) crown on a posterior tooth?

1.5–2.0 mm (Correct answer)
2.5–3.0 mm
3.0–4.0 mm
0.5–1.0 mm

Correct answer: 1.5–2.0 mm

A minimum of 1.5–2.0 mm occlusal reduction is required for PFM crowns to allow adequate metal and porcelain thickness without compromising strength.

ORE Part 2 – Overseas Registration Examination (GDC)

The GDC Overseas Registration Examination Part 2 is a clinical assessment for overseas-qualified dentists seeking registration in the UK, testing practical skills across OSCE stations, dental manikin operative procedures, diagnosis & treatment planning, and medical emergencies.

Questions

35 min

Time Limit

70%

To Pass

Checking for saved progress...

Exam Rules

You can skip questions and return to them later
Flag questions for review before submitting
No feedback shown until you submit the entire exam
Unanswered questions count as wrong — answer everything
10 pretest questions are mixed in and don't affect your score
Timer auto-submits when time runs out
Your progress is auto-saved every 30 seconds

These practice questions were written with AI tools. They are not real exam questions. Exam facts are checked against the official sources listed below. Not reviewed by a subject-matter expert. Editorial policy

Sources & references

Exam facts on this page (fees, format, dates, passing scores) are checked against these official sources; the date is our last check. Editorial policy

gdc-uk.org — Test delivery, exam dates, fees, retake fee, score release, time limit, retake policy, score validity, registration, exam information · verified Nov 2026
orepart2.org.uk — Eligibility, time limit, passing score · verified Oct 2026