ORE PART 2 Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield ORE PART 2 facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. What is the primary advantage of rubber dam use during restorative procedures in the UK? → Moisture control and cross-infection prevention
2. At what age is surgical removal of unerupted lower third molars with no pathology generally not recommended? → Over 35 years (increased surgical morbidity)
3. What is the recommended recall interval for bitewing radiographs in a caries-free low-risk adult patient? → Every 2 years
4. In the copy denture technique, what is the primary clinical advantage? → Reproduces the polished surface of the existing denture that the patient has adapted to
5. What is the maximum period a dentist can prescribe a Schedule 2 controlled drug (e.g., midazolam) for in the UK? → 30 days
6. Following removal of a cystic lesion from the jaw, what is the mandatory next step? → Submit specimen for histopathological examination
7. Under CQC regulations, what are the five key questions inspectors ask about a dental service? → Safe, Effective, Caring, Responsive, Well-led
8. What is the recommended minimum thickness of porcelain for adequate strength in a posterior all-ceramic crown? → 1.5 mm
9. What is the recommended treatment for a lateral (periodontal) abscess in a patient with Stage III periodontitis? → Drainage via sulcus, debridement, and systemic antibiotics if spreading cellulitis
10. In the UK, which shade guide is most commonly used for shade selection in anterior restorations? → VITA Classical
11. Which matrix system is most appropriate for a Class II composite restoration involving a tight contact area? → Sectional matrix with separation ring
12. Which type of connector is most appropriate for a Kennedy Class I removable partial denture (bilateral free-end saddle)? → Anterior-posterior palatal bar design with indirect retention
13. When surveying a cast for a cobalt-chromium partial denture, what does the survey line (height of contour) determine? → Position of clasps, rests, and the path of insertion
14. According to GDC Standards, how often should patient records be updated in a dental practice? → At every appointment
15. What is the recommended management of a fractured upper tuberosity during maxillary molar extraction? → Stop, stabilise the fragment with sutures, allow healing for 6–8 weeks before re-attempt
16. What clinical sign indicates that a lower partial denture clasp is too tight? → Tooth tenderness, enamel abrasion at clasp contact, and difficulty seating the denture
17. What is the recommended management of a subluxed primary upper incisor with displacement towards the permanent tooth germ? → Extraction of the primary tooth to protect the permanent successor
18. Which UK legislation governs the safe disposal of clinical waste from dental practices? → Environmental Protection Act 1990 and Controlled Waste Regulations
19. Which condition is most likely if a patient reports their crown 'feels high' immediately after cementation? → Premature occlusal contact on the restoration
20. A patient requires a Class II composite restoration on the mesial surface of an upper premolar. What is the purpose of using a sectional matrix band? → To create a tight proximal contact and natural tooth contour
21. What does the term 'ferrule effect' refer to in crown preparation? → A band of tooth structure encircled by the crown margin
22. What is the primary reason for bevelling enamel margins in anterior composite restorations? → Increase bonding surface area and improve aesthetics
23. Which microorganism is classified as a 'red complex' pathogen in the Socransky classification of periodontal pathogens? → Porphyromonas gingivalis
24. Which test is most reliable for assessing pulp vitality in a traumatised anterior tooth? → Electric pulp test combined with cold test
25. During a clinical skills assessment, what is the correct working length for root canal preparation? → At the cemento-dentinal junction, confirmed with an electronic apex locator
26. What is the recommended final irrigation sequence to remove the smear layer and ensure effective disinfection before obturation? → NaOCl → EDTA → NaOCl
27. What is the clinical significance of furcation Class II involvement in a maxillary molar? → Reduced prognosis; complete root separation or extraction may be considered
28. According to the 2017 World Workshop classification, what differentiates Stage III from Stage IV periodontitis? → Tooth loss due to periodontitis and masticatory dysfunction
29. What is the recommended technique to minimise dental anxiety in a child undergoing their first restoration? → Tell-Show-Do technique with positive reinforcement
30. What is the clinical significance of a displaced root fragment into the maxillary sinus during upper molar extraction? → Requires urgent referral to oral and maxillofacial surgery for removal