NAVLE Equine Surgery and Lameness 5

Question 1

A 6-year-old warmblood gelding has MRI findings consistent with a deep digital flexor tendon (DDFT) lesion within the hoof capsule. Which treatment has shown the most promise for core lesions of the DDFT in the foot?

Accepted Answer

Intralesional injection of platelet-rich plasma (PRP) combined with corrective shoeing

Answer

Intralesional PRP combined with corrective shoeing (heel elevation and/or egg bar shoe) is the current evidence-based approach for DDFT core lesions within the foot.

Question 2

A 9-year-old Paint Horse gelding presents with a 3-month history of weight loss, fever of unknown origin, and a firm, non-painful enlargement in the inguinal region. Aspiration reveals thick, greenish pus. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Ulcerative lymphangitis (Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis abscess)

Answer

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis causes caseous lymphadenitis (pigeon fever) with characteristic thick, greenish pus in firm subcutaneous or inguinal abscesses, often with systemic signs.

Question 3

When performing an arthroscopic procedure on the equine tarsocrural (tibiotarsal) joint, the surgeon must be aware that the dorsolateral portal is placed just lateral to which tendon?

Accepted Answer

Long digital extensor tendon

Answer

The dorsolateral portal of the tarsocrural joint is placed lateral to the long digital extensor tendon, which serves as the key anatomical landmark to avoid during portal placement.

Question 4

A 7-year-old Thoroughbred mare undergoes emergency celiotomy for small colon impaction. The surgeon identifies a mesenteric rent through which small intestine has passed and become strangulated. After reducing the hernia and assessing the intestine, the surgeon should:

Accepted Answer

Close the mesenteric rent with simple interrupted sutures after intestinal assessment

Answer

Mesenteric rents must be closed after reducing the herniated intestine to prevent recurrence of internal herniation and strangulation.

Question 5

A 4-year-old Quarter Horse shows reluctance to extend the left forelimb fully when walking. On observation, there is a characteristic 'catching' of the hindlimb with the hoof dragging during protraction. Which condition best explains the hindlimb gait abnormality?

Accepted Answer

Fibrotic myopathy of the semitendinosus/semimembranosus

Answer

Fibrotic myopathy following injury to the caudal thigh muscles causes a characteristic mechanical gait with a sudden caudal 'flip' of the foot during the cranial phase of the stride.

NAVLE - North American Veterinary Licensing Examination Practice Test

NAVLE - North American Veterinary Licensing Examination Practice Test

NAVLE Equine Surgery and Lameness 5