NAVLE Equine Surgery and Lameness 3

Question 1

A 6-year-old Standardbred pacer develops progressive bilateral hindlimb ataxia and weakness that worsens going downhill. Cervical radiographs show vertebral canal stenosis at C4-C5. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Cervical vertebral stenotic myelopathy (Wobbler syndrome)

Answer

Cervical vertebral stenotic myelopathy (Wobbler syndrome) presents with progressive spinal cord compression causing symmetric ataxia and weakness, confirmed by vertebral canal stenosis on radiographs.

Question 2

An 8-year-old Arabian mare undergoes ovariectomy via flank laparotomy. On post-op day 2, she develops acute abdominal pain and pyrexia. Abdominocentesis reveals yellow-tinged fluid with a total protein of 4.5 g/dL and WBC of 90,000 cells/μL. What is the most likely complication?

Accepted Answer

Peritonitis secondary to intestinal contamination or pedicle infection

Answer

Markedly elevated peritoneal fluid protein and WBC with fever and pain indicate septic peritonitis, a serious complication of flank ovariectomy typically due to contamination or pedicle infection.

Question 3

Radiographs of a 4-year-old Warmblood show osteochondral fragments at the dorsal aspect of the proximal interphalangeal (pastern) joint. The horse has mild lameness improved by intra-articular analgesia. What is the recommended treatment?

Accepted Answer

Arthroscopic removal of osteochondral fragments

Answer

Osteochondral fragments at the pastern joint are best treated by arthroscopic removal, which provides the most reliable return to athletic function.

Question 4

A horse presents with sudden onset severe hindlimb lameness and a palpable defect in the middle gluteal muscle. The horse had been exercising at speed just before onset. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Exertional rhabdomyolysis with muscle tear (tying-up)

Answer

Acute muscle tear of the gluteal region with a palpable defect following high-intensity exercise is consistent with exertional rhabdomyolysis severe enough to cause myofibrillar disruption.

Question 5

During exploratory laparotomy for colic, the surgeon identifies a section of small intestine that is dark purple-black in color with no palpable pulse in the mesenteric vasculature after 10 minutes of warm saline lavage. What is the appropriate surgical decision?

Accepted Answer

Perform resection and anastomosis of the non-viable segment

Answer

Non-viable intestine (no color change, no mesenteric pulse after warming) must be resected with end-to-end or side-to-side anastomosis to prevent endotoxemia and peritonitis.

NAVLE - North American Veterinary Licensing Examination Practice Test

NAVLE - North American Veterinary Licensing Examination Practice Test

NAVLE Equine Surgery and Lameness 3