AMC MCQ Obstetrics and Gynaecology 2

Question 1

A 28-year-old at 34 weeks presents with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. What is the most appropriate next step?

Accepted Answer

Ultrasound to locate the placenta

Answer

Painless antepartum haemorrhage suggests placenta praevia, where ultrasound localisation must precede any vaginal examination.

Question 2

Which finding is most characteristic of severe pre-eclampsia rather than gestational hypertension?

Accepted Answer

Proteinuria with epigastric pain and visual disturbance

Answer

End-organ involvement such as epigastric pain and visual disturbance with proteinuria signifies severe pre-eclampsia.

Question 3

A woman with a previous classical caesarean section is most at risk of which complication during a subsequent pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Uterine rupture

Answer

A classical (vertical) uterine scar carries a substantially higher risk of uterine rupture, so elective caesarean is recommended.

Question 4

What is the first-line management of shoulder dystocia?

Accepted Answer

McRoberts manoeuvre with suprapubic pressure

Answer

McRoberts manoeuvre with suprapubic pressure resolves most shoulder dystocias and is the recommended first step.

Question 5

A 32-year-old has a positive 75g OGTT at 26 weeks. What is the most appropriate initial management?

Accepted Answer

Dietary modification and blood glucose monitoring

Answer

First-line management of gestational diabetes is dietary modification with self-monitoring of blood glucose before pharmacotherapy.

AMC MCQ Practice Test