AMC MCQ Obstetrics and Gynaecology 2

Question 1

A 28-year-old at 34 weeks presents with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. What is the most appropriate next step?

Accepted Answer

Ultrasound to locate the placenta

Answer

Digital vaginal examination

Answer

Immediate artificial rupture of membranes

Answer

Oxytocin induction

Question 2

Which finding is most characteristic of severe pre-eclampsia rather than gestational hypertension?

Accepted Answer

Proteinuria with epigastric pain and visual disturbance

Answer

BP 140/90 mmHg with no proteinuria

Answer

Isolated lower limb oedema

Answer

BP 130/85 mmHg at term

Question 3

A woman with a previous classical caesarean section is most at risk of which complication during a subsequent pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Uterine rupture

Answer

Placenta praevia only

Answer

Gestational diabetes

Answer

Polyhydramnios

Question 4

What is the first-line management of shoulder dystocia?

Accepted Answer

McRoberts manoeuvre with suprapubic pressure

Answer

Immediate caesarean section

Answer

Fundal pressure

Answer

Forceps delivery

Question 5

A 32-year-old has a positive 75g OGTT at 26 weeks. What is the most appropriate initial management?

Accepted Answer

Dietary modification and blood glucose monitoring

Answer

Immediate insulin therapy

Answer

Metformin and induction at 34 weeks

Answer

No intervention until symptoms appear

Question 6

Which is the most common cause of primary postpartum haemorrhage?

Accepted Answer

Uterine atony

Answer

Retained placenta

Answer

Genital tract trauma

Answer

Coagulopathy

Question 7

A rhesus-negative mother delivers a rhesus-positive baby. What is required to prevent sensitisation?

Accepted Answer

Anti-D immunoglobulin within 72 hours

Answer

Maternal blood transfusion

Answer

Exchange transfusion of the baby

Answer

No treatment is necessary