Obstetrics and Gynaecology Flashcards
7 cards from real AMC MCQ practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.
Read the first 7 Obstetrics and Gynaecology flashcards as text
A 28-year-old at 34 weeks presents with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. What is the most appropriate next step?
Answer: Ultrasound to locate the placenta
Painless antepartum haemorrhage suggests placenta praevia, where ultrasound localisation must precede any vaginal examination.
Which finding is most characteristic of severe pre-eclampsia rather than gestational hypertension?
Answer: Proteinuria with epigastric pain and visual disturbance
End-organ involvement such as epigastric pain and visual disturbance with proteinuria signifies severe pre-eclampsia.
A woman with a previous classical caesarean section is most at risk of which complication during a subsequent pregnancy?
Answer: Uterine rupture
A classical (vertical) uterine scar carries a substantially higher risk of uterine rupture, so elective caesarean is recommended.
What is the first-line management of shoulder dystocia?
Answer: McRoberts manoeuvre with suprapubic pressure
McRoberts manoeuvre with suprapubic pressure resolves most shoulder dystocias and is the recommended first step.
A 32-year-old has a positive 75g OGTT at 26 weeks. What is the most appropriate initial management?
Answer: Dietary modification and blood glucose monitoring
First-line management of gestational diabetes is dietary modification with self-monitoring of blood glucose before pharmacotherapy.
Which is the most common cause of primary postpartum haemorrhage?
Answer: Uterine atony
Uterine atony accounts for around 70% of primary postpartum haemorrhage cases.
A rhesus-negative mother delivers a rhesus-positive baby. What is required to prevent sensitisation?
Answer: Anti-D immunoglobulin within 72 hours
Anti-D immunoglobulin given within 72 hours prevents maternal alloimmunisation against fetal RhD antigens.