AMC MCQ Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield AMC MCQ facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. Which type of epidemic curve suggests a common point-source exposure? → A single sharp peak
2. A patient with ulcerative colitis develops abdominal distension, fever, and a colon diameter over 6 cm. What is this complication? → Toxic megacolon
3. A 45-year-old woman has a microcytic, hypochromic anaemia with serum ferritin of 5 µg/L and low serum iron. What is the most likely cause? → Iron deficiency anaemia
4. Which prevention strategy targets the whole population rather than high-risk individuals? → Population (mass) strategy
5. What is the standard initial intensive-phase regimen for drug-sensitive pulmonary tuberculosis? → Rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide and ethambutol
6. Which is the most appropriate initial imaging for suspected acute cholecystitis? → Abdominal ultrasound
7. What is the lethal triad in trauma that damage control surgery seeks to prevent? → Hypothermia, acidosis and coagulopathy
8. What is the most common type of skin cancer? → Basal cell carcinoma
9. A patient bleeding massively receives a balanced transfusion. What ratio of products is commonly recommended? → 1:1:1 red cells, plasma and platelets
10. A healthcare worker is exposed to a needlestick from an HBeAg-positive patient. The worker is unvaccinated. What is the most appropriate immediate management? → Hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG) plus hepatitis B vaccination
11. A 30-year-old African-Caribbean woman has bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy, erythema nodosum and arthralgia. What is the most likely diagnosis? → Sarcoidosis
12. Which bias arises when cases recall past exposures more thoroughly than controls in a case-control study? → Recall bias
13. Hypercalcaemia due to PTHrP secretion is most classically associated with which lung cancer type? → Squamous cell carcinoma
14. A teenager presents with a circular, scaly lesion with central clearing and a raised advancing border. What is the most likely diagnosis? → Tinea corporis
15. What is the first-line management of shoulder dystocia? → McRoberts manoeuvre with suprapubic pressure
16. What is the primary purpose of a hospital clinical ethics committee? → To provide advice and a structured framework for complex ethical dilemmas in patient care
17. Which study design is most appropriate to estimate the prevalence of obesity in a community at a single point in time? → Cross-sectional survey
18. Which classification grades surgical complications by the therapy required to treat them? → Clavien-Dindo classification
19. A patient with CKD has a corrected calcium of 1.9 mmol/L, phosphate of 2.4 mmol/L and a markedly raised PTH. What is the underlying mechanism? → Secondary hyperparathyroidism from low calcitriol and phosphate retention
20. Which test is most sensitive for the diagnosis of active tuberculosis in a sputum sample? → Mycobacterial culture
21. Which level of disease prevention does cervical cancer screening with Pap testing represent? → Secondary prevention
22. A patient has signs of malignant hyperthermia under general anaesthesia. What is the specific treatment? → Dantrolene
23. A postoperative patient develops sudden pleuritic chest pain, dyspnoea and tachycardia on day 4. What is the most likely diagnosis? → Pulmonary embolism
24. A child presents with a 'slapped cheek' facial rash followed by a lacy reticular rash on the limbs. What is the causative organism? → Parvovirus B19
25. A patient on an ACE inhibitor develops a persistent dry cough. What is the most appropriate substitute? → Angiotensin receptor blocker
26. A patient on long-term steroids requires major surgery. What perioperative concern is most important? → Risk of adrenal crisis requiring stress-dose steroids
27. A 65-year-old reports brief recurrent stabbing pains in the cheek triggered by chewing and touching the face. What is the most likely diagnosis? → Trigeminal neuralgia
28. A type 1 diabetic presents drowsy with a blood glucose of 28 mmol/L, ketonaemia and a pH of 7.18. What is the most important first step in management? → Intravenous isotonic fluid resuscitation
29. A 40-year-old with deep vein thrombosis is found to have Factor V Leiden mutation. What does this mutation cause? → Resistance to activated protein C (APC resistance)
30. An elderly patient with polymyalgia rheumatica develops a new headache and jaw claudication. What complication must be excluded urgently? → Giant cell (temporal) arteritis