Project Practice Test: Video 5 Answers (25 Questions) — Questions and Answers

Question 1: Which type of organizational structure gives the project manager the MOST authority?

Balanced matrix
Projectized (Correct answer)
Functional
Weak matrix

Correct answer: Projectized

In a projectized organization, the project manager has full authority over project resources and decisions.

Question 2: The project manager should work with a _____ and do checks as often as feasible.

Project Team
Coordinator
System Administrator (Correct answer)
CEO

Correct answer: System Administrator

When the question implies working with systems and performing checks, the most appropriate professional is a System Administrator. This role is responsible for the upkeep, configuration, and reliable operation of computer systems, especially multi-user computers such as servers. Regular checks with a System Administrator ensure the technical infrastructure supporting the project runs efficiently and securely.

Question 3: The project's ______ demand is noted to increase from the beginning to an intermediate stage of the project while it is being carried out.

Equipment
Design
Man Power
Resource (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Resource

During the execution phase of a project, the demand for resources (such as human resources, equipment, and materials) typically follows a bell-shaped curve. It starts low during initiation and planning, increases significantly as the main project work gets underway in the intermediate stages, and then tapers off towards the end as tasks are completed. This reflects the intensive activity during project delivery.

Question 4: Which concept describes accepting a lesser short-term result to achieve a more beneficial long-term outcome in project management?

Trade-off analysis (Correct answer)
Risk transfer
Scope reduction
Value engineering

Correct answer: Trade-off analysis

Trade-off analysis involves consciously accepting compromise in one area (e.g., cost) to gain advantage in another (e.g., schedule) based on project priorities.

Question 5: A project manager notices that stakeholder requirements are continuously expanding beyond the original scope. This is an example of:

Rolling wave planning
Progressive elaboration
Change management
Scope creep (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Scope creep

Scope creep is the uncontrolled expansion of project scope without corresponding adjustments to time, cost, or resources.

Question 6: Which of the following are the two essential outputs of the Sprint Planning ceremony?

The Product Goal and a list of identified risks.
A stakeholder-approved budget and a project charter.
A revised Product Backlog and the team's velocity.
The Sprint Goal and the Sprint Backlog. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The Sprint Goal and the Sprint Backlog.

Sprint Planning results in two key artifacts: The Sprint Goal, which is a high-level objective for the Sprint, and the Sprint Backlog, which is the set of Product Backlog items selected for the Sprint plus a plan for delivering them.

Question 7: A Product Owner wants to cancel a Sprint. Under what condition does the Scrum Guide permit Sprint cancellation?

When more than half the Sprint Backlog is incomplete
When the team's velocity drops significantly
When a key developer leaves the team
When the Sprint Goal becomes obsolete (Correct answer)

Correct answer: When the Sprint Goal becomes obsolete

Only the Product Owner can cancel a Sprint, and only when the Sprint Goal becomes obsolete due to changed priorities, business conditions, or company direction.

Question 8: What is the maximum timebox for a Daily Scrum?

10 minutes
15 minutes (Correct answer)
1 hour
30 minutes

Correct answer: 15 minutes

The Daily Scrum is timeboxed to 15 minutes regardless of team size, promoting discipline and efficiency in daily synchronization.

Question 9: In SAFe (Scaled Agile Framework), what ceremony replaces the individual Sprint Review at the program level?

Release Train Engineer sync
Inspect and Adapt Workshop
System Demo (Correct answer)
Program Increment Planning

Correct answer: System Demo

The System Demo in SAFe is the program-level equivalent of the Sprint Review, where all Agile Release Train teams demonstrate integrated working software.

Question 10: Which Agile principle directly supports the purpose of holding frequent Sprint Reviews?

Business people and developers must work together daily
The best architectures emerge from self-organizing teams
Working software is the primary measure of progress (Correct answer)
Continuous attention to technical excellence

Correct answer: Working software is the primary measure of progress

The Agile principle that working software is the primary measure of progress directly supports Sprint Reviews, where teams demonstrate a potentially shippable Increment.

Question 11: A project manager accepts a risk and sets aside $50,000 in the contingency reserve. This is an example of:

Active acceptance (Correct answer)
Mitigate
Passive acceptance
Transfer

Correct answer: Active acceptance

Active acceptance involves establishing a contingency reserve (time, money, or resources) to deal with the risk if it occurs.

Question 12: The 'Exploit' strategy for opportunities aims to:

Reduce the probability of a positive risk
Accept the opportunity if it occurs naturally
Ensure the opportunity definitely occurs (Correct answer)
Transfer the opportunity to a third party

Correct answer: Ensure the opportunity definitely occurs

Exploiting an opportunity means taking actions to ensure the positive event definitely happens, maximizing its probability to 100%.

Question 13: After all planned responses are implemented, the remaining risk exposure is known as:

Secondary risk
Residual risk (Correct answer)
Inherent risk
Trigger risk

Correct answer: Residual risk

Residual risk is the remaining risk that persists after responses have been implemented and accepted by stakeholders.

Question 14: A risk response requires the project manager to revise the project schedule. Which document must be updated as a result?

Risk register only
Project management plan (Correct answer)
Lessons learned register
Stakeholder engagement plan

Correct answer: Project management plan

When risk responses affect schedule, cost, or scope, the relevant subsidiary plans within the project management plan must be updated.

Question 15: When a risk response is implemented, it may introduce new risks. These newly created risks are called:

Emergent risks
Residual risks
Secondary risks (Correct answer)
Trigger risks

Correct answer: Secondary risks

Secondary risks are risks that arise as a direct result of implementing a risk response.

Question 16: Which scheduling technique accounts for uncertainty by using optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely duration estimates?

Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT) (Correct answer)
Gantt chart
Resource leveling
Critical Path Method (CPM)

Correct answer: Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT)

PERT uses three-point estimates (optimistic, pessimistic, most likely) to calculate expected durations and account for uncertainty.

Question 17: A mandatory dependency between activities is also known as a:

External dependency
Soft logic
Hard logic (Correct answer)
Discretionary dependency

Correct answer: Hard logic

Hard logic (mandatory dependency) is inherent in the nature of the work and cannot be changed, such as testing software before deployment.

Question 18: Which cost estimation technique uses the actual cost of a similar past project as the basis for estimating?

Parametric estimating
Bottom-up estimating
Three-point estimating
Analogous estimating (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Analogous estimating

Analogous estimating uses historical data from similar past projects as the basis for estimates and is less accurate but faster.

Question 19: A project manager is compressing the schedule by adding more team members to critical path tasks. This technique is called:

Schedule rebaselining
Resource smoothing
Crashing (Correct answer)
Fast-tracking

Correct answer: Crashing

Crashing involves adding resources to critical path activities to shorten duration, typically at increased cost.

Question 20: A project manager calculates the Schedule Performance Index (SPI) as 0.85. What does this indicate?

The project is 15% under budget
The project is behind schedule (Correct answer)
The project is ahead of schedule
The project has a 15% cost overrun

Correct answer: The project is behind schedule

An SPI less than 1.0 means the project is behind schedule, as less work was accomplished than planned.

Question 21: What is the term of the component of the authorized total cost estimate that is anticipated to be spent on an activity during a specific period?

Rough Order of Magnitude
Life Cycle Costing
Actual Cost
Planned Value (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Planned Value

Planned Value (PV), also known as Budgeted Cost of Work Scheduled (BCWS), represents the authorized budget assigned to the work scheduled to be completed by a specific date. It is the baseline against which actual performance is measured in Earned Value Management. PV helps track whether the project is on track with its spending plan at any given point.

Question 22: When an organization obtains goods and/or supplies from a third-party source in another country, what term is used?

Exporting
Globalization
Global sourcing
Offshoring (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Offshoring

Offshoring refers to the practice of relocating a business process or service to another country, often to take advantage of lower labor costs or specific expertise. While it involves obtaining goods/supplies from a third party, the key differentiator is the geographical relocation of the production or service delivery. This differs from simple importing or global sourcing, which don't necessarily imply relocating the *process* itself.

Question 23: What is the term for earned value less real cost?

Cost Variance (Correct answer)
Earned Value
Cost Control
Actual Cost

Correct answer: Cost Variance

Cost Variance (CV) is a key metric in Earned Value Management (EVM) that measures the difference between the Earned Value (EV) and the Actual Cost (AC) of work performed. A positive CV indicates that the project is under budget, while a negative CV means it is over budget. It helps project managers understand the financial performance of the project.

Question 24: What is the term of the cost estimate that offers a precise estimate of project costs?

Definitive Estimate (Correct answer)
Direct Costs
Contingency Reserves
Baseline

Correct answer: Definitive Estimate

A Definitive Estimate is the most accurate type of cost estimate, typically performed late in the project planning phase when the scope is well-defined. It provides a precise estimate of project costs, usually within a range of -5% to +10% or -5% to +15%. This level of accuracy is achieved through detailed analysis of work packages and vendor quotes.

Question 25: The ratio of earned value to planned value, or _________________, can be used to calculate the anticipated time needed to finish a project.

Indirect Costs
Schedule Variance (SV)
Life Cycle Costing
Schedule Performance Index (SPI) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Schedule Performance Index (SPI)

The Schedule Performance Index (SPI) is a key metric in Earned Value Management (EVM), calculated as the ratio of Earned Value (EV) to Planned Value (PV). An SPI greater than 1 indicates the project is ahead of schedule, while less than 1 means it's behind. This ratio is crucial for assessing schedule efficiency and forecasting the anticipated time needed to complete the project.

Project Practice Test: Video 5 Answers (25 Questions)

Which type of organizational structure gives the project manager the MOST authority?

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