Project Management Professional (PMP) Exam — Questions and Answers

Question 1: A project manager wants to use EVM but the work is highly repetitive with fixed unit costs. Which earned value technique is most appropriate?

0/100 method
Percent complete method
Units completed method (Correct answer)
Level of effort method

Correct answer: Units completed method

The units completed method works best for repetitive tasks where each unit has a known budgeted cost, making EV calculation straightforward.

Question 2: You are in charge of the Floor Installation Project's project management. To make sure the project is finished without deviating from its specifications, you have scheduled a meeting with your project team for today. Which of the following describes the process?

Quality assurance
Quality management
Quality planning (Correct answer)
Quality control

Correct answer: Quality planning

The scenario describes a proactive meeting to define how the project will meet its specifications and ensure quality before work deviates. This activity of identifying quality requirements, standards, and how to achieve them is the essence of quality planning. It involves determining what 'quality' means for the project and outlining the processes to deliver it.

Question 3: What is planned value less earned value?

Management Reserves
Schedule Variance (Correct answer)
Project Cost Management
Schedule Performance Index

Correct answer: Schedule Variance

Schedule Variance (SV) is a key Earned Value Management (EVM) metric that measures the difference between the Earned Value (EV) and the Planned Value (PV). While typically calculated as EV - PV, the concept represents the deviation from the planned schedule. A positive SV indicates the project is ahead of schedule, while a negative SV means it is behind schedule, providing an objective measure of schedule performance.

Question 4: In a RACI matrix, what does the letter 'A' represent?

Available
Assigned
Authorized
Accountable (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Accountable

In a RACI matrix, 'A' stands for Accountable — the single person who is ultimately answerable for the correct completion of the task.

Question 5: After implementing a risk response, the project team determines that a small amount of the original risk still remains. The team decides this remaining level of risk is acceptable and does not warrant further action. This remaining risk is known as a:

Secondary Risk
Mitigated Risk
Residual Risk (Correct answer)
Contingency Risk

Correct answer: Residual Risk

Residual risk is the risk that remains after risk responses have been implemented. It is the 'leftover' risk that the project team has decided to accept.

Question 6: Which stakeholder engagement level describes a stakeholder who actively works against the project's success?

Opposing
Neutral
Resistant (Correct answer)
Unaware

Correct answer: Resistant

In the PMBOK engagement model, 'Resistant' stakeholders are aware of the project but actively work against it.

Question 7: Which Agile principle directly supports the purpose of holding frequent Sprint Reviews?

The best architectures emerge from self-organizing teams
Business people and developers must work together daily
Working software is the primary measure of progress (Correct answer)
Continuous attention to technical excellence

Correct answer: Working software is the primary measure of progress

The Agile principle that working software is the primary measure of progress directly supports Sprint Reviews, where teams demonstrate a potentially shippable Increment.

Question 8: At what point does optimal quality occur?

When revenue from improvements equal the costs of conformance
When revenue from improvement equals the incremental costs to achieve the quality (Correct answer)
When revenue from corrective actions equals the costs of the improvement
When the stakeholder accepts the project deliverable

Correct answer: When revenue from improvement equals the incremental costs to achieve the quality

Optimal quality occurs at the point where the benefits gained from further quality improvements no longer outweigh the additional costs incurred to achieve them. This represents the most economically sound level of quality investment. Beyond this point, the incremental cost of striving for higher quality would exceed the incremental value it brings to the project or product.

Question 9: Which of the following statements is true about the Planning Process' definition?

Defines and refinesthe project objectives (Correct answer)
Defines and Authorises Project or Phase
Ensuring that project objectives are
Coordinate resources to carry out the plan

Correct answer: Defines and refinesthe project objectives

The Planning Process Group is where the project objectives are further defined, refined, and detailed. This involves developing the comprehensive project management plan, which outlines how the project will be executed, monitored, controlled, and closed, ensuring alignment with the initial project goals. It transforms high-level ideas into specific, actionable plans.

Question 10: What is the term of the cost estimate method that involves estimating each individual work item and adding them together to get a project total?

Analogous Estimates
Bottom-Up Estimates (Correct answer)
Parametric Estimate
Definitive Estimate

Correct answer: Bottom-Up Estimates

Bottom-Up Estimating involves breaking down the project work into its smallest components (work packages or activities) and then estimating the cost or duration for each of these individual items. These detailed estimates are then rolled up to calculate the total project cost or schedule. This method provides a highly accurate estimate because it leverages detailed knowledge of the work at the lowest level.

Question 11: The process group that is frequently overlooked and disregarded is:

Integration
Inputs
Close out (Correct answer)
Initiation

Correct answer: Close out

The Close Out process group is often overlooked because teams are eager to move on to new projects, or resources are reallocated prematurely. However, proper project closure is crucial for formal acceptance of deliverables, releasing resources, documenting lessons learned, and archiving project documents for future reference. Neglecting this phase can lead to unresolved issues and missed opportunities for organizational learning.

Question 12: The term of the project's initial plan including any approved amendments is ________.

Baseline (Correct answer)
Cost Control
Cost Baseline
Cost Management Plan

Correct answer: Baseline

A baseline in project management refers to the approved version of a work product, such as the scope, schedule, or cost, that is used as a basis for comparison to actual results. It represents the project's initial plan plus any formally approved changes. The baseline serves as a stable reference point for measuring project performance and controlling deviations.

Question 13: In qualitative risk analysis, a 'probability and impact matrix' is used to:

Determine which risks require insurance coverage
Calculate the exact financial exposure of each risk
Prioritize risks for further analysis or risk response planning (Correct answer)
Assign risk owners to each identified risk

Correct answer: Prioritize risks for further analysis or risk response planning

The probability and impact matrix helps teams prioritize risks by rating their likelihood and potential effect, guiding where to focus risk management efforts.

Question 14: A project manager updates the project documents and risk register after completing Plan Risk Responses. Which document captures agreed-upon response strategies and risk owners?

Stakeholder register
Project charter
Risk report (Correct answer)
Quality management plan

Correct answer: Risk report

The risk report (introduced in PMBOK 6) consolidates overall risk exposure and individual risk information including responses and ownership.

Question 15: A project manager identifies a risk that could significantly delay the project. The team decides to change the project plan to eliminate the risk entirely by adopting a different technical approach that does not carry this risk. This is an example of which risk response strategy?

Acceptance
Mitigation
Transference
Avoidance (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Avoidance

Risk avoidance is a strategy that involves changing the project plan to eliminate a threat or protect the project from its impact. In this scenario, the team is not just reducing the risk's impact (mitigation) but removing it completely by changing their approach.

Question 16: A normal _____ network must allow information, inquiries, comments, and views to circulate within the organization.

Neural
Information
Organization
Communication (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Communication

Effective communication is vital for any organization or project to function smoothly. A robust communication network facilitates the exchange of information, inquiries, comments, and views among team members and stakeholders. This continuous flow of information is essential for collaboration, decision-making, and ensuring everyone is aligned with project goals.

Question 17: Which of the following is a key output of the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process?

Stakeholder register
Issue log
Stakeholder engagement plan (Correct answer)
Change requests

Correct answer: Stakeholder engagement plan

The primary output of the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process is the stakeholder engagement plan itself. This plan details the strategies and actions required to effectively engage stakeholders throughout the project lifecycle. The stakeholder register is a key input to this process, while the issue log and change requests are typically outputs of monitoring and controlling processes.

Question 18: A project manager notices that a key stakeholder has shifted from 'supportive' to 'neutral' on the stakeholder engagement assessment matrix. What is the BEST immediate action?

Escalate the issue to the project sponsor
Update the risk register to reflect the change
Reduce the stakeholder's involvement to avoid further disengagement
Schedule a one-on-one meeting to understand the stakeholder's concerns (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Schedule a one-on-one meeting to understand the stakeholder's concerns

A direct conversation helps identify the root cause of disengagement before it worsens.

Question 19: A resource histogram is primarily used to:

List all project resources and their responsibilities
Identify the critical path for resource-constrained activities
Show resource usage against available capacity over time (Correct answer)
Track resource costs over time

Correct answer: Show resource usage against available capacity over time

A resource histogram displays resource usage plotted against available capacity over time, making it easy to spot periods of over- or under-allocation.

Question 20: A Product Owner and the Developers are collaborating to add details, estimates, and order to items in the Product Backlog. This is not a formal, time-boxed event but an ongoing activity throughout the sprint. This activity is best known as:

Backlog Refinement (Correct answer)
Scope Creep
Sprint Planning Part 2
Stakeholder Management

Correct answer: Backlog Refinement

Product Backlog refinement is the act of breaking down and further defining Product Backlog items into smaller, more precise items. It's an ongoing activity where details, estimates, and order are added to Product Backlog items. The Scrum Guide suggests this usually consumes no more than 10% of the Development Team's capacity.

Question 21: In agile projects, the product backlog most closely corresponds to which traditional PM artifact?

Scope statement and requirements documentation (Correct answer)
Risk register
Stakeholder register
Project charter

Correct answer: Scope statement and requirements documentation

The product backlog serves as the evolving list of features and requirements, functioning similarly to the scope statement and requirements documentation in predictive approaches.

Question 22: Which document formally authorizes the project and grants the project manager authority to apply organizational resources?

Scope Statement
Project Charter (Correct answer)
Project Management Plan
Statement of Work

Correct answer: Project Charter

The Project Charter is the formal document that authorizes the project and empowers the project manager to use resources.

Question 23: What does revenue less expense mean?

Profit (Correct answer)
Indirect Costs
Reserves
Profit Margin

Correct answer: Profit

Profit is a fundamental financial concept calculated as the total revenue earned minus the total expenses incurred over a specific period. It represents the financial gain or loss of a business or project. This metric is crucial for assessing financial performance and viability.

Question 24: The process of monitoring the status of the project and product scope and managing changes to the scope baseline is called:

Control Scope (Correct answer)
Define Scope
Plan Scope Management
Validate Scope

Correct answer: Control Scope

Control Scope is the process of monitoring scope status and managing changes to ensure the scope baseline is maintained.

Question 25: Which of the following best describes the Variance at Completion (VAC)?

The difference between PV and EV at the reporting date
The difference between EV and AC at the reporting date
The remaining budget to complete the project
The projected difference between BAC and EAC (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The projected difference between BAC and EAC

VAC = BAC - EAC; it predicts whether the project will be over or under budget at the end.

Question 26: What is the Estimate at Completion (EAC) formula when future work is expected to be performed at the budgeted rate?

EAC = BAC × SPI
EAC = AC + ETC
EAC = AC + (BAC – EV) (Correct answer)
EAC = BAC / CPI

Correct answer: EAC = AC + (BAC – EV)

When future work will proceed at the planned rate, EAC = AC + (BAC – EV), which adds actual costs to the remaining budget.

Question 27: A project manager for a new dam construction project notices that the representative from an environmental agency, a key stakeholder, has not been attending meetings or responding to emails. The project is approaching a critical phase requiring the agency's input. What is the project manager's BEST course of action?

Proceed with the planned work, assuming the agency's previous input is still valid to avoid delays.
Seek a direct, one-on-one meeting with the stakeholder to understand their concerns and preferred communication method. (Correct answer)
Escalate the issue to the project sponsor immediately to report the lack of compliance.
Update the stakeholder register to classify them as 'Resistant' and develop a new strategy without their input.

Correct answer: Seek a direct, one-on-one meeting with the stakeholder to understand their concerns and preferred communication method.

The most effective and professional first step is direct engagement. A one-on-one meeting allows the project manager to understand the root cause of the disengagement, build rapport, and adjust the communication plan to better suit the stakeholder's needs. Escalating is premature, proceeding is risky, and reclassifying them without investigation is an administrative action that doesn't solve the core problem.

Question 28: What is a milestone in project scheduling?

A significant point or event in the project with zero duration (Correct answer)
A buffer added between critical tasks
A summary task that groups related activities
A task with the longest duration on the critical path

Correct answer: A significant point or event in the project with zero duration

A milestone marks a significant project event or decision point and has no duration — it is a moment in time, not a task.

Question 29: A project has a total budget (BAC) of $200,000. At the current point in time, the team has spent $70,000 (AC) and has completed work valued at $60,000 (EV). The planned value (PV) for this point was $80,000. The project manager needs to calculate the Estimate at Completion (EAC) assuming the current cost performance will continue until the end of the project. What is the correct EAC?

$233,333 (Correct answer)
$225,000
$200,000
$210,000

Correct answer: $233,333

When assuming the current cost performance (CPI) will continue, the formula for EAC is BAC / CPI. First, calculate the CPI: CPI = EV / AC = $60,000 / $70,000 ≈ 0.857. Then, calculate the EAC: EAC = $200,000 / 0.857 ≈ $233,333. This forecast shows the expected total cost if the project continues to perform at the same cost efficiency.

Question 30: A newly formed Scrum Team asks how long each Sprint should be. What guidance does the Scrum Guide provide?

1 week only for new teams
Exactly 2 weeks
Between 2 and 6 weeks, chosen by the Product Owner
Between 1 and 4 weeks, chosen by the team (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Between 1 and 4 weeks, chosen by the team

The Scrum Guide recommends Sprints be one month or less, with the team choosing the specific length to maintain a consistent cadence.

Question 31: The process of monitoring the status of the project and product scope and managing changes to the scope baseline is called:

Define Scope
Plan Scope Management
Control Scope (Correct answer)
Validate Scope

Correct answer: Control Scope

Control Scope is the process of monitoring scope status and managing changes to ensure the scope baseline is maintained.

Question 32: Which of the following are the two essential outputs of the Sprint Planning ceremony?

The Sprint Goal and the Sprint Backlog. (Correct answer)
The Product Goal and a list of identified risks.
A revised Product Backlog and the team's velocity.
A stakeholder-approved budget and a project charter.

Correct answer: The Sprint Goal and the Sprint Backlog.

Sprint Planning results in two key artifacts: The Sprint Goal, which is a high-level objective for the Sprint, and the Sprint Backlog, which is the set of Product Backlog items selected for the Sprint plus a plan for delivering them.

Question 33: Which of the Process Groups has the most Processes?

Planning & Controlling
Initiating
Executing
Planning (Correct answer)
Closing

Correct answer: Planning

According to the Project Management Institute's (PMI) PMBOK Guide, the Planning Process Group contains the largest number of individual processes. This is because planning involves detailing every aspect of the project, from scope and schedule to cost, quality, resources, communications, risk, procurement, and stakeholder engagement, requiring extensive definition and documentation.

Question 34: A project manager is analyzing a project's performance and calculates the Cost Performance Index (CPI) to be 0.85 and the Schedule Performance Index (SPI) to be 1.15. Which of the following statements BEST describes the project's current status?

The project is under budget and behind schedule.
The project is over budget and behind schedule.
The project is under budget and ahead of schedule.
The project is over budget and ahead of schedule. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The project is over budget and ahead of schedule.

A CPI less than 1 indicates that the project is over budget (costing more than planned for the work accomplished). An SPI greater than 1 indicates the project is ahead of schedule (more work has been completed than was planned). Therefore, a CPI of 0.85 and an SPI of 1.15 means the project is over budget and ahead of schedule.

Question 35: A stakeholder has high influence but low interest in the project. The recommended communication strategy is to:

Monitor with minimal engagement
Keep satisfied with targeted, minimal communication (Correct answer)
Manage closely with frequent updates
Keep informed with detailed reports

Correct answer: Keep satisfied with targeted, minimal communication

High-influence, low-interest stakeholders should be kept satisfied without overwhelming them with unnecessary detail.

Question 36: A stakeholder submits a change request to add new features after the scope baseline has been approved. The project manager should FIRST:

Reject the request because the baseline is already approved
Update the WBS to include the new features
Evaluate the impact on schedule, cost, and risk before submitting to the CCB (Correct answer)
Implement the change immediately to satisfy the stakeholder

Correct answer: Evaluate the impact on schedule, cost, and risk before submitting to the CCB

Before escalating to the change control board, the project manager should assess the impact of the proposed change on all project constraints.

Question 37: Which term describes the documented process for requesting, evaluating, and approving changes to project baselines?

Configuration management system
Integrated change control process (Correct answer)
Risk response planning
Quality assurance process

Correct answer: Integrated change control process

Integrated change control is the formal governance process that evaluates all change requests and authorizes modifications to the project baselines.

Question 38: Which output of the Collect Requirements process is used as a key input to Define Scope?

Stakeholder engagement plan
Requirements documentation (Correct answer)
WBS dictionary
Project charter

Correct answer: Requirements documentation

Requirements documentation, which captures stakeholder needs, is a primary input to the Define Scope process.

Question 39: A project manager observes CPI = 0.75 and SPI = 0.85. What is the most accurate conclusion?

The project is under budget but behind schedule
The project is over budget but ahead of schedule
The project is both over budget and behind schedule (Correct answer)
The project is under budget and ahead of schedule

Correct answer: The project is both over budget and behind schedule

CPI < 1 means over budget and SPI < 1 means behind schedule, so both performance dimensions are unfavorable.

Question 40: Which of the following BEST describes 'active listening' during stakeholder communications?

Waiting silently for the stakeholder to finish speaking
Asking clarifying questions and paraphrasing to confirm understanding (Correct answer)
Taking notes while the stakeholder speaks
Nodding and maintaining eye contact only

Correct answer: Asking clarifying questions and paraphrasing to confirm understanding

Active listening involves engaging with the speaker through clarification and paraphrasing to ensure accurate understanding.

Question 41: The triple constraint in project management traditionally refers to which three competing demands?

Scope, Schedule, and Cost (Correct answer)
Time, Resources, and Communication
Budget, Procurement, and Stakeholders
Cost, Risk, and Quality

Correct answer: Scope, Schedule, and Cost

Scope, Schedule, and Cost form the classic triple constraint, where changing one typically impacts the others.

Question 42: Which project management concept ensures that project work is broken down into manageable components?

Communication plan
Risk register
Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) (Correct answer)
RACI chart

Correct answer: Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

The WBS decomposes total project scope into smaller, manageable work packages that can be planned and controlled.

Question 43: A resource calendar is used primarily to identify:

The total cost of each resource category across the project
When and for how long specific resources are available for project work (Correct answer)
The sequence in which resources should be deployed on activities
The skills and competency levels of each team member

Correct answer: When and for how long specific resources are available for project work

A resource calendar specifies working days, shifts, hours of availability, and exceptions (holidays, vacations) for each resource, enabling accurate assignment and scheduling.

Question 44: During Sprint Planning, the Development Team determines they cannot complete all items the Product Owner wants. What should happen?

The team negotiates scope with the Product Owner to fit the Sprint capacity (Correct answer)
The Product Owner overrides the team and adds the items anyway
The Sprint is extended to accommodate all items
The Scrum Master decides what gets included

Correct answer: The team negotiates scope with the Product Owner to fit the Sprint capacity

The Development Team owns the commitment to the Sprint Backlog and negotiates scope with the Product Owner to ensure the Sprint Goal is achievable within capacity.

Question 45: A risk response requires the project manager to revise the project schedule. Which document must be updated as a result?

Stakeholder engagement plan
Lessons learned register
Project management plan (Correct answer)
Risk register only

Correct answer: Project management plan

When risk responses affect schedule, cost, or scope, the relevant subsidiary plans within the project management plan must be updated.

Question 46: A project activity has ES=5, EF=12, LS=8, LF=15. What is the activity's total float and duration?

Float=3, Duration=3
Float=7, Duration=3
Float=7, Duration=7
Float=3, Duration=7 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Float=3, Duration=7

Duration = EF - ES = 12 - 5 = 7 days; Total Float = LS - ES = 8 - 5 = 3 days (or LF - EF = 15 - 12 = 3 days).

Question 47: A project manager is asked to approve an expenditure that exceeds their delegated authority. What should they do?

Split the purchase into smaller amounts to stay within authority
Approve it and report it later in status reporting
Escalate the decision to the appropriate authority level (Correct answer)
Reject the expenditure without escalation

Correct answer: Escalate the decision to the appropriate authority level

Exceeding delegated authority requires escalating to the next governance level; circumventing this process violates project governance.

Question 48: During risk response planning for a software development project, the team identifies a risk that a third-party API may be unreliable. The team's primary response is to build a monitoring tool to detect API failures quickly. They also identify an alternative API provider and prepare an integration plan in case the primary one fails completely. What is this second plan called?

A fallback plan (Correct answer)
A workaround
A residual risk plan
A secondary risk plan

Correct answer: A fallback plan

A fallback plan is a predetermined set of actions to be taken if the primary risk response or contingency plan proves to be ineffective. In this case, the monitoring tool is the primary response, and switching to a new provider is the 'Plan B' or fallback plan.

Question 49: A work package has a BAC of $10,000, is 50% complete by EV, and has spent $6,000. What is the Cost Variance (CV)?

-$4,000
+$4,000
-$1,000 (Correct answer)
+$1,000

Correct answer: -$1,000

EV = 50% × $10,000 = $5,000; CV = EV - AC = $5,000 - $6,000 = -$1,000, indicating a cost overrun.

Question 50: A project manager wants to move a stakeholder from 'neutral' to 'supportive.' Which action is MOST likely to achieve this?

Send weekly status reports with project metrics
Assign the stakeholder administrative tasks to keep them busy
Involve the stakeholder in relevant decision-making processes to increase their sense of ownership (Correct answer)
Present the project business case at a town hall meeting

Correct answer: Involve the stakeholder in relevant decision-making processes to increase their sense of ownership

Involving stakeholders in decisions increases their sense of ownership and investment, moving them toward active support.

Question 51: Which Kanban practice limits the amount of work in progress to improve flow efficiency?

Daily standups
Velocity tracking
Sprint reviews
WIP limits (Correct answer)

Correct answer: WIP limits

WIP (Work In Progress) limits constrain the number of items in each workflow stage, reducing bottlenecks and improving throughput.

Question 52: Which of the following is an example of the 'Enhance' strategy for opportunities?

Eliminating all obstacles to ensure an early delivery occurs (Correct answer)
Assigning the opportunity to a third party better positioned to capture it
Doing nothing and letting the opportunity arise naturally
Sharing resources with another project to reduce costs

Correct answer: Eliminating all obstacles to ensure an early delivery occurs

Enhance increases the probability or positive impact of an opportunity by removing barriers or strengthening causes.

Question 53: During Backlog Refinement, who is responsible for clarifying the details of Product Backlog items?

Only the Development Team
The Scrum Master and Stakeholders
Only the Product Owner
The Product Owner and Developers collaboratively (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The Product Owner and Developers collaboratively

Backlog Refinement is a collaborative activity where the Product Owner and Developers add detail, estimates, and order to Product Backlog items.

Question 54: What is a 'deliverable' in the context of project management?

A budget report submitted to stakeholders
Any unique and verifiable product, result, or capability produced to complete a process or project (Correct answer)
A scheduled team meeting
A risk that has been resolved

Correct answer: Any unique and verifiable product, result, or capability produced to complete a process or project

A deliverable is any measurable, tangible outcome or result that must be produced to complete the project or a phase.

Question 55: Which artifact is MOST useful for defining the communication needs, frequency, and format required to maintain stakeholder engagement?

Resource management plan
Project management plan
Communications management plan (Correct answer)
Stakeholder engagement plan

Correct answer: Communications management plan

The communications management plan specifies how, when, and in what format information is delivered to each stakeholder group.

Question 56: The five groups in the project management process are:

Initiate, plan, control, execute, close (Correct answer)
Design, measure, analyze, improve, control
Define, design, deploy, evaluate, refine
Define, measure, destroy, design, verify

Correct answer: Initiate, plan, control, execute, close

The five Project Management Process Groups, as defined by the Project Management Institute (PMI), are Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring & Controlling, and Closing. These groups represent a logical grouping of project management processes that are applied throughout the project lifecycle. They are not phases but rather overlapping activities performed repeatedly to manage the project effectively.

Question 57: During a risk review, a previously identified risk has its probability reduced from 'High' to 'Low' after a mitigation action was completed. What should the PM do?

Remove the risk from the register immediately
Archive the risk and create a new entry
Escalate the change to the change control board
Update the risk register to reflect the new probability and impact scores (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Update the risk register to reflect the new probability and impact scores

The risk register is a living document and should be updated whenever risk attributes change due to mitigation actions or new information.

Question 58: A scatter diagram is used in quality management to:

Rank defects from most to least frequent
Determine whether two variables are related (Correct answer)
Show the order in which defects occurred over time
Track whether a process is within control limits

Correct answer: Determine whether two variables are related

A scatter diagram plots two variables to identify potential correlations or relationships between them.

Question 59: What is the term for the sum of all direct and indirect expenditures involved in carrying out work on an activity during a specific time period?

Budget at Completion (BAC)
Schedule Variance (SV)
Earned value (EV)
Actual Cost (AC) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Actual Cost (AC)

Actual Cost (AC) in Earned Value Management (EVM) represents the total cost incurred for the work performed on an activity or work package during a given time period. It includes all direct and indirect expenditures attributed to the work. AC provides a real-time measure of how much money has actually been spent, which is crucial for calculating cost performance metrics.

Question 60: In a CPM network, a 'dummy activity' in an AOA diagram is used to:

Indicate that two activities can be performed simultaneously
Mark the project's milestone events
Show a logical dependency between activities without representing actual work (Correct answer)
Represent activities with zero duration that consume resources

Correct answer: Show a logical dependency between activities without representing actual work

Dummy activities in AOA diagrams are zero-duration, zero-resource arrows that represent logical dependencies not otherwise expressible in the network structure.

Question 61: What does a negative Schedule Variance (SV) tell a project manager?

The project scope has increased
The project has accomplished less work than planned (Correct answer)
The project has spent more than budgeted
The project will finish early

Correct answer: The project has accomplished less work than planned

SV = EV - PV; a negative SV means EV < PV, so less work has been accomplished than was planned for this point in time.

Question 62: During a project to implement a new CRM system, the project team decides to purchase an insurance policy to cover potential data loss during migration. This action is an example of which of the following risk response strategies?

Avoidance
Mitigation
Acceptance
Transference (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Transference

Risk transference is the strategy of shifting the negative impact of a threat, along with ownership of the response, to a third party. Purchasing insurance is a classic example of transferring the financial impact of a risk to an insurance company.

Question 63: A project manager is working with SMEs to break down a high-level deliverable into smaller components. This technique is called:

Decomposition (Correct answer)
Rolling wave planning
Progressive elaboration
Bottom-up estimating

Correct answer: Decomposition

Decomposition is the technique of breaking down project deliverables and work into smaller, more manageable components.

Question 64: If the project completion date is moved earlier by management, what is the effect on the critical path?

Some previously non-critical activities may become critical (Correct answer)
Non-critical activities may gain positive float
The critical path disappears
The critical path always shortens automatically

Correct answer: Some previously non-critical activities may become critical

Compressing the required end date reduces total float across the network, potentially making previously non-critical paths critical.

Question 65: A project manager is compressing the schedule by adding more team members to critical path tasks. This technique is called:

Schedule rebaselining
Resource smoothing
Fast-tracking
Crashing (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Crashing

Crashing involves adding resources to critical path activities to shorten duration, typically at increased cost.

Question 66: Which of the four organizational frames addresses meeting procedures, employee dress, and working hours?

Political
Structural
Symbolic (Correct answer)
Human resources

Correct answer: Symbolic

Bolman and Deal's Four Frames of Organizations include Structural, Human Resources, Political, and Symbolic. The Symbolic frame focuses on the culture, meaning, rituals, and myths within an organization. Meeting procedures, dress codes, and working hours are examples of organizational rituals and symbols that convey meaning and shape the organizational culture, fitting within this frame.

Question 67: Which type of organizational structure gives the project manager the MOST authority?

Projectized (Correct answer)
Functional
Weak matrix
Balanced matrix

Correct answer: Projectized

In a projectized organization, the project manager has full authority over project resources and decisions.

Question 68: What does the term 'risk appetite' refer to in project management?

The amount of risk an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives (Correct answer)
The frequency at which risk reviews are conducted
The total monetary value of all identified risks
The number of risks a project can have before it is cancelled

Correct answer: The amount of risk an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives

Risk appetite is the degree of uncertainty an organization or stakeholder is willing to accept in anticipation of a reward.

Question 69: In the LeSS (Large-Scale Scrum) framework, how does it handle multiple teams working on the same product?

Each team operates independently with no coordination ceremonies
Each team has a separate product backlog
All teams share a single product backlog and a single Product Owner (Correct answer)
Teams are divided by functional specialization with no shared backlog

Correct answer: All teams share a single product backlog and a single Product Owner

LeSS uses one product backlog, one Product Owner, and one potentially shippable product increment, with multiple teams collaborating on the same product.

Question 70: You are in charge of the BBB Project's project management. Project team member Stacy is unsure about what QA entails. Which of the subsequent best sums up QA?

QA is quality assurance for the overall project performance. (Correct answer)
QA is quality assurance for the project stakeholders.
QA is quality acceptance according to scope verification.
QA is quality assurance for the project deliverable.

Correct answer: QA is quality assurance for the overall project performance.

Quality Assurance (QA) focuses on ensuring that the processes used to manage and create the project deliverables are effective and efficient. It's about preventing defects by improving the overall project processes, rather than just inspecting the final product. This broader scope covers the entire project's performance and adherence to established quality procedures, ensuring quality is built in.

Question 71: A project manager accepts a risk and sets aside $50,000 in the contingency reserve. This is an example of:

Transfer
Mitigate
Active acceptance (Correct answer)
Passive acceptance

Correct answer: Active acceptance

Active acceptance involves establishing a contingency reserve (time, money, or resources) to deal with the risk if it occurs.

Question 72: Which EVM technique assigns 100% credit only when the work package is fully completed?

0/100 method (Correct answer)
Percent complete
Milestone method
50/50 method

Correct answer: 0/100 method

The 0/100 method assigns no earned value until the work is complete, then grants 100% — ideal for short-duration tasks.

Question 73: In the context of the Critical Path Method, what does 'total float' (or 'total slack') for an activity signify?

The amount of time an activity can be delayed without impacting the project's overall completion date. (Correct answer)
The number of additional resources required to keep the activity on schedule.
The total duration of all activities that are not on the critical path.
The amount of time an activity can be delayed without affecting the early start date of its immediate successor.

Correct answer: The amount of time an activity can be delayed without impacting the project's overall completion date.

Total float, also known as total slack, is the amount of time that a specific activity can be delayed from its early start date without delaying the project's final completion date. Activities on the critical path have zero total float.

Question 74: Costs that are directly tied to generating the project's products and services.

Earned Value
Direct Costs (Correct answer)
Budget at Completion
Cost Budgeting

Correct answer: Direct Costs

Direct costs are expenses that can be directly attributed to a specific project activity, product, or service. Examples include the wages of team members working solely on the project, materials used for the project, or equipment rented specifically for the project. These costs are easily traceable and directly incurred by the project's deliverables.

Question 75: A project manager notices the team's agile retrospectives always produce the same improvement ideas with no real change. What is the best corrective action?

Switch the project back to waterfall methodology
Eliminate retrospectives to save time
Replace the Scrum Master immediately
Rotate retrospective facilitation techniques to surface new insights (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Rotate retrospective facilitation techniques to surface new insights

Varying retrospective formats (starfish, 4Ls, sailboat, etc.) breaks habitual thinking patterns and surfaces different perspectives and improvement opportunities.

Question 76: A project's SPI is 1.15. What does this indicate?

The project is under budget
The project is over budget
The project is ahead of schedule (Correct answer)
The project is behind schedule

Correct answer: The project is ahead of schedule

SPI > 1.0 means the project is ahead of schedule, earning more value than planned for the time elapsed.

Question 77: What is the PRIMARY purpose of a Project Management Office (PMO) in relation to governance?

To manage individual project budgets directly
To replace the project manager on complex projects
To standardize project processes and ensure adherence to organizational policies (Correct answer)
To handle all stakeholder communications

Correct answer: To standardize project processes and ensure adherence to organizational policies

A PMO establishes and enforces consistent project management standards, templates, and governance frameworks across the organization.

Question 78: When forming a joint venture to pursue a market opportunity, the project is using which opportunity response strategy?

Share (Correct answer)
Accept
Exploit
Enhance

Correct answer: Share

Sharing involves allocating ownership of an opportunity to a third party (e.g., joint venture, partnership) better able to capture it.

Question 79: The concept of 'fit for use' in quality management refers to:

Passing all defined acceptance tests
Meeting all documented requirements exactly
Conforming to international quality standards
Satisfying actual needs of the customer or end user (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Satisfying actual needs of the customer or end user

Joseph Juran defined quality as 'fitness for use,' meaning the product must satisfy the real needs of those who use it.

Question 80: A customer requests a change that expands the project scope. After approval through the change control process, the project manager should update:

Only the project charter
Only the project schedule
Only the WBS
The scope baseline and related project documents (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The scope baseline and related project documents

Approved scope changes require updates to the scope baseline and any affected project documents such as the schedule, budget, and WBS.

Question 81: During a project health check, an auditor finds that change requests are being informally approved via email without going through the change control board. This indicates a failure in:

Risk management
Stakeholder management
Communications management
Project governance controls (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Project governance controls

Bypassing the change control board breaks down the governance controls designed to protect project baselines and ensure accountability for changes.

Question 82: The procedures that must be followed to ensure that the project is completed on time and on budget.

Planned Value
Project Cost Management (Correct answer)
Rate of Performance
Management Reserves

Correct answer: Project Cost Management

Project Cost Management is the knowledge area that encompasses the processes required to plan, estimate, budget, finance, fund, manage, and control costs. Its primary objective is to ensure that the project can be completed within the approved budget. By effectively managing financial resources, it directly addresses the goal of completing a project on budget and supports on-time completion through proper resource allocation.

Question 83: A Scrum Master observes that the team's Sprint Retrospectives produce action items that are never completed. What is the best response?

Replace the retrospective with a written survey
Add retrospective action items to the Sprint Backlog (Correct answer)
Stop holding Retrospectives until team culture improves
Report the team to management

Correct answer: Add retrospective action items to the Sprint Backlog

Adding retrospective improvement actions to the Sprint Backlog makes them visible, tracked, and prioritized alongside other work, increasing the chance of completion.

Question 84: The project may experience ________ as it moves forward due to various external factors.

Pressure
Threats
Change (Correct answer)
Error

Correct answer: Change

Projects are inherently dynamic and operate within environments subject to various external influences. These external factors, such as market shifts, regulatory changes, or technological advancements, frequently necessitate adjustments to the project plan, scope, or schedule. Therefore, a project is highly likely to experience 'Change' as it progresses, requiring adaptability and a robust change management process.

Question 85: What does the Disciplined Agile (DA) toolkit emphasize that distinguishes it from other scaling frameworks?

Choice of strategies based on context rather than one-size-fits-all rules (Correct answer)
Requiring all teams to use Scrum exclusively
Eliminating the role of the project manager entirely
Strict adherence to a single prescribed process

Correct answer: Choice of strategies based on context rather than one-size-fits-all rules

DA provides a toolkit of strategies and guides teams to choose the right approach for their specific context rather than mandating one framework.

Question 86: What are the dollars included in a cost estimate to account for unforeseen future events, sometimes known as "unknown unknowns"?

Parametric Modeling
Reserves
Management Reserves (Correct answer)
Rough Order of Magnitude

Correct answer: Management Reserves

Management reserves are funds included in the overall project budget to cover unforeseen future events, often referred to as 'unknown unknowns,' which are risks not identified during the planning process. These reserves are typically controlled by senior management and are not part of the project cost baseline. Accessing management reserves usually requires a formal change request and approval from higher authority.

Question 87: An activity in a project schedule has a 'free float' of 3 days. What does this indicate?

The activity can be delayed by 3 days without delaying the entire project.
The activity can be delayed by 3 days without delaying the early start of any of its immediate successor activities. (Correct answer)
The project will finish 3 days ahead of schedule.
The activity is on the critical path and has 3 days of built-in buffer.

Correct answer: The activity can be delayed by 3 days without delaying the early start of any of its immediate successor activities.

Free float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without impacting the early start date of its immediate successor(s). This is different from total float, which relates to delaying the overall project completion date.

Question 88: What is the term for the sum of all direct and indirect expenditures involved in carrying out work on an activity during a specific time period?

Schedule Variance (SV)
Earned value (EV)
Budget at Completion (BAC)
Actual Cost (AC) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Actual Cost (AC)

Question 89: The ratio of actual work finished to the amount of work expected to have been finished at any given point throughout the project or activity's existence is known as the _______.

Parametric Modeling
Learning Curve Theory
Rate of Performance (RP) (Correct answer)
Schedule Variance (SV)

Correct answer: Rate of Performance (RP)

The Rate of Performance (RP) quantifies how efficiently the project is progressing against its schedule by comparing the actual work finished to the amount of work expected to have been finished at a given point. This metric helps assess whether the project is ahead or behind schedule. It provides insight into the project's overall pace of execution and is often synonymous with the Schedule Performance Index (SPI) in Earned Value Management.

Question 90: Which WBS element represents the lowest level of deliverable at which cost and schedule can be reliably estimated?

Planning package
Milestone
Work package (Correct answer)
Control account

Correct answer: Work package

A work package is the lowest level of the WBS where work can be estimated, assigned, scheduled, monitored, and controlled.

Question 91: What is meant by 'project governance'?

The legal contracts between the project team and vendors
The framework of rules, responsibilities, and processes that guide project decisions and accountability (Correct answer)
The communication plan between the team and stakeholders
The financial reporting structure for project budgets

Correct answer: The framework of rules, responsibilities, and processes that guide project decisions and accountability

Project governance provides the structure, processes, decision-making models, and accountability mechanisms that guide how projects are managed.

Question 92: The following nine knowledge areas:

Procurement, integration, scope, cost, quality, time, risk, HR, and communication (Correct answer)
Integration, scope, schedule, budget, quality, IT, training, communication
Scope, initiation, price, risk, communication, IT, procurement, schedule, and quality
Integration, Listerine, time, cost, quality, procurement, risk, HR, communication

Correct answer: Procurement, integration, scope, cost, quality, time, risk, HR, and communication

The Project Management Institute (PMI) defines ten Project Management Knowledge Areas, which are Integration, Scope, Schedule (Time), Cost, Quality, Resource (HR), Communications, Risk, Procurement, and Stakeholder Management. The given option lists nine of these, with 'HR' standing for Human Resources (now often called Resource Management) and 'time' for Schedule Management, which aligns with the core knowledge areas.

Question 93: A virtual project team is spread across five time zones. Which communication approach is MOST effective for routine status updates?

Daily video calls at a fixed time
Asynchronous written updates via a shared project tool (Correct answer)
In-person monthly meetings
Phone calls to each member individually

Correct answer: Asynchronous written updates via a shared project tool

Asynchronous written updates accommodate different time zones without requiring simultaneous availability.

Question 94: A team practicing Extreme Programming (XP) uses pair programming. What is the primary benefit of this practice?

Reducing the need for sprint reviews
Replacing daily standups with longer planning sessions
Increasing code quality and knowledge sharing in real time (Correct answer)
Eliminating the need for a product backlog

Correct answer: Increasing code quality and knowledge sharing in real time

Pair programming improves code quality through continuous review and simultaneously transfers knowledge between team members.

Question 95: A project manager is deciding between two risk responses. Response A costs $10,000 and reduces expected loss from $80,000 to $20,000. Response B costs $5,000 and reduces expected loss from $80,000 to $50,000. Which response provides better value?

Response A, because it reduces more risk
Response A, because net savings ($60,000) exceed Response B net savings ($25,000) (Correct answer)
Response B, because it costs less
Response B, because cost-benefit ratio is higher

Correct answer: Response A, because net savings ($60,000) exceed Response B net savings ($25,000)

Response A yields $60,000 net savings (80k-20k-10k) vs. Response B's $25,000 net savings (80k-50k-5k), making A the better value.

Question 96: A software development project is on schedule and within budget, and all technical deliverables have passed quality assurance. However, during a review, a key stakeholder expresses significant dissatisfaction, stating the product is "not what we needed." What is the MOST likely cause of this situation?

The project team used an agile methodology instead of waterfall.
The risk register was not updated frequently enough throughout the project.
Inadequate management of stakeholder expectations and communication. (Correct answer)
The project has an unfavorable Schedule Performance Index (SPI).

Correct answer: Inadequate management of stakeholder expectations and communication.

A project can meet all internal metrics (scope, schedule, budget) but still fail if it doesn't meet stakeholder expectations. This scenario points directly to a breakdown in communication and a failure to properly elicit, document, and manage the stakeholder's actual needs and expectations. Project success is ultimately determined by stakeholder satisfaction.

Question 97: A project manager notices that stakeholder requirements are continuously expanding beyond the original scope. This is an example of:

Scope creep (Correct answer)
Rolling wave planning
Progressive elaboration
Change management

Correct answer: Scope creep

Scope creep is the uncontrolled expansion of project scope without corresponding adjustments to time, cost, or resources.

Question 98: A risk has been identified that exceeds the project manager's authority level to address. The BEST response is to:

Escalate the risk to the sponsor or senior management (Correct answer)
Accept the risk passively
Transfer the risk to a vendor
Mitigate the risk immediately

Correct answer: Escalate the risk to the sponsor or senior management

Escalation is the appropriate strategy when a risk falls outside the project's authority or scope to address.

Question 99: Which strategy should you employ while establishing a WBS?

None of the above
Top-down
Either Top-down or Bottom-up (Correct answer)
Bottom-up

Correct answer: Either Top-down or Bottom-up

A Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) can be developed using either a top-down or a bottom-up approach, or a combination of both. Top-down starts with the major deliverables and progressively breaks them down into smaller, manageable components. Bottom-up involves identifying detailed tasks first and then grouping them into higher-level deliverables. The choice often depends on the project's complexity, available information, and the project manager's preference.

Question 100: A team member raises a technical design concern during the Daily Scrum. What is the correct Scrum approach?

Pause the Daily Scrum to resolve the issue
Note it and address it in a separate follow-up meeting after the Daily Scrum (Correct answer)
Ignore it until the Sprint Review
Escalate it to the Product Owner immediately

Correct answer: Note it and address it in a separate follow-up meeting after the Daily Scrum

The Daily Scrum is timeboxed to 15 minutes for synchronization; detailed discussions should happen in follow-up meetings with relevant team members.

Question 101: During a monthly project review, the project manager reports a Cost Performance Index (CPI) of 1.15 and a Schedule Performance Index (SPI) of 0.95. Which of the following statements provides the BEST interpretation of these metrics?

The project is under budget and ahead of schedule.
The project is under budget and behind schedule. (Correct answer)
The project is over budget and behind schedule.
The project is over budget and ahead of schedule.

Correct answer: The project is under budget and behind schedule.

A CPI greater than 1.0 indicates the project is under budget (getting more value than what was spent). An SPI less than 1.0 indicates the project is behind schedule (completed less work than planned). Therefore, a CPI of 1.15 and an SPI of 0.95 means the project is performing favorably on cost but is delayed.

Question 102: A project manager is assessing stakeholder engagement on a large infrastructure project with 50+ stakeholders. What is the MOST efficient first step?

Interview every stakeholder individually about their concerns
Segment stakeholders by category and assess engagement by group (Correct answer)
Ask the sponsor to rank all stakeholders by importance
Limit engagement assessment to only the top 10 stakeholders

Correct answer: Segment stakeholders by category and assess engagement by group

Segmenting stakeholders by category allows efficient assessment across large groups without losing important nuance.

Question 103: Which technique is commonly used during scope planning to gather requirements from a large, geographically dispersed stakeholder group?

Surveys and questionnaires (Correct answer)
Interviews
Benchmarking
Focus groups

Correct answer: Surveys and questionnaires

Surveys and questionnaires are efficient for collecting input from many stakeholders across different locations quickly.

Question 104: A project has a CPI of 0.80. The project manager expects this rate of cost performance to continue for the remainder of the project. If the Budget at Completion (BAC) is $500,000, what is the most likely Estimate at Completion (EAC)?

$625,000 (Correct answer)
$400,000
$580,000
$500,000

Correct answer: $625,000

When the current cost performance is expected to continue, the formula EAC = BAC / CPI is used. Given a BAC of $500,000 and a CPI of 0.80, the calculation is EAC = $500,000 / 0.80 = $625,000. This forecasts the total project cost based on the current cost efficiency.

Question 105: What is a project management plan?

A document that graphically depicts the project team members and their interrelationships for a specific inter relational diagram to discover root causes.
A formal, approved document that defines how the project will be executed, monitored, and controlled. (Correct answer)
The aggregation of the tools and techniques needed to manage a project.
Contains only the plans for each of the triple constraints and their baselines.

Correct answer: A formal, approved document that defines how the project will be executed, monitored, and controlled.

A project management plan is a formal, approved document that serves as the central guide for how the project will be executed, monitored, and controlled. It integrates all subsidiary plans (e.g., scope, schedule, cost, quality) and defines the approach for managing the project's lifecycle. This comprehensive document acts as a baseline for measuring performance and ensuring a structured approach to project delivery.

Question 106: When completing a Stakeholder Engagement Assessment Matrix, a project manager identifies a stakeholder's position with two letters: 'C' and 'D'. What do these letters typically represent?

Critical and Dependent
Current and Desired (Correct answer)
Committed and Detached
Cooperative and Disruptive

Correct answer: Current and Desired

In the context of a Stakeholder Engagement Assessment Matrix, 'C' is the standard notation for a stakeholder's Current engagement level, and 'D' represents the Desired engagement level needed for the project's success.

Question 107: The Develop Team process primarily occurs:

Only during the initiation phase when the team is first assembled
Only when significant team conflicts arise and must be resolved
Only at the end of the project during performance reviews
Continuously throughout the project execution phase (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Continuously throughout the project execution phase

The Develop Team process is ongoing throughout project execution, as the project manager continually works to improve team competencies, interaction, and overall performance.

Question 108: In a hybrid project, the construction phase uses waterfall while the software integration uses agile sprints. Which governance structure best supports this?

Separate governance tracks with synchronized integration milestones (Correct answer)
Using only Kanban boards for the entire project
A single agile team managing all phases
Eliminating all project documentation

Correct answer: Separate governance tracks with synchronized integration milestones

Separate governance tracks allow each phase to follow its optimal methodology while integration milestones ensure alignment.

Question 109: Which EVM metric would a project manager use to predict the total cost at project completion if current cost performance continues?

EAC = AC + BAC - EV
EAC = BAC / CPI (Correct answer)
EAC = EV + BAC
EAC = AC + ETC

Correct answer: EAC = BAC / CPI

EAC = BAC / CPI is used when current cost performance is expected to continue for the remainder of the project.

Question 110: When performing schedule compression using 'crashing,' a project manager should first target activities that:

Involve the most resources
Have the most remaining duration
Have the most total float available
Are on the critical path with the lowest cost slope (cheapest to crash) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Are on the critical path with the lowest cost slope (cheapest to crash)

Crashing should prioritize critical path activities with the lowest cost-per-unit-of-time-saved (cost slope) to minimize the additional cost of compression.

Question 111: Because they are very ______, information technology projects differ from projects in many other businesses.

Expensive
Technical
Challenging
Diverse (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Diverse

Information technology projects are highly diverse due to the wide range of technologies, methodologies, and business domains they can encompass. They can involve software development, infrastructure upgrades, data analytics, cybersecurity, and more, each with unique challenges and requirements. This inherent diversity makes IT project management particularly complex and varied compared to more standardized industries.

Question 112: According to Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs, which level must be satisfied before esteem needs become the primary motivator?

Social/Belonging needs (Correct answer)
Safety needs
Self-actualization needs
Physiological needs

Correct answer: Social/Belonging needs

Maslow's hierarchy progresses upward from physiological → safety → social/belonging → esteem → self-actualization; social/belonging needs must be met before esteem motivates behavior.

Question 113: A project's SPI is 1.15. What does this indicate?

The project is over budget
The project is under budget
The project is ahead of schedule (Correct answer)
The project is behind schedule

Correct answer: The project is ahead of schedule

SPI > 1.0 means the project is ahead of schedule, earning more value than planned for the time elapsed.

Question 114: Which of the following best describes 'resource leveling' in relation to CPM?

A process that redistributes budget across project phases
A technique that shortens the critical path by adding resources
A technique that adjusts activity start/end dates to smooth resource demand, which may extend the critical path (Correct answer)
A method for eliminating all float from non-critical activities

Correct answer: A technique that adjusts activity start/end dates to smooth resource demand, which may extend the critical path

Resource leveling adjusts the schedule to avoid resource over-allocation, often extending the project duration beyond the original critical path.

Question 115: A scope baseline consists of which three documents?

Scope Statement, WBS, and WBS Dictionary (Correct answer)
Scope Statement, Network Diagram, and WBS
Charter, WBS, and WBS Dictionary
Requirements Document, WBS, and Project Plan

Correct answer: Scope Statement, WBS, and WBS Dictionary

The scope baseline is composed of the approved project scope statement, the WBS, and the WBS dictionary.

Question 116: A project has a Budget at Completion (BAC) of $150,000. At the current status date, the project has an Earned Value (EV) of $60,000 and an Actual Cost (AC) of $75,000. The project manager determines that the current cost variances are atypical and expects the remaining work to be completed at the budgeted rate. Which formula should be used to calculate the Estimate at Completion (EAC)?

EAC = AC + [(BAC - EV) / (CPI * SPI)]
EAC = AC + (BAC - EV) (Correct answer)
EAC = AC + Bottom-up ETC
EAC = BAC / CPI

Correct answer: EAC = AC + (BAC - EV)

When current variances are considered atypical and not expected to continue, the EAC is calculated by taking the actual costs to date and adding the remaining budget. The formula EAC = AC + (BAC - EV) represents this scenario, as (BAC - EV) is the value of the remaining work.

Question 117: A project manager discovers that a vendor is not adhering to the contract's quality standards. What is the FIRST step the PM should take?

Accept the deliverable with noted exceptions
Terminate the vendor contract immediately
Document the non-compliance and notify the vendor formally (Correct answer)
Escalate directly to the project sponsor

Correct answer: Document the non-compliance and notify the vendor formally

Formal documentation and notification creates a compliance record and gives the vendor an opportunity to remedy the issue before escalation.

Question 118: Which of the following is a primary function of a project steering committee within a project governance framework?

Providing high-level strategic direction and making key go/no-go decisions. (Correct answer)
Developing the detailed work breakdown structure (WBS).
Managing the procurement of project resources and materials.
Performing the daily project tasks and activities.

Correct answer: Providing high-level strategic direction and making key go/no-go decisions.

The steering committee is a high-level governance body composed of senior stakeholders and executives. Its primary role is to provide strategic oversight, ensure alignment with business objectives, resolve major issues, and make critical decisions, such as approving significant changes or authorizing project continuation.

Question 119: The Estimate to Complete (ETC) assumes remaining work will be done at the budgeted rate. Which formula represents this?

ETC = AC + BAC - EV
ETC = BAC / CPI
ETC = (BAC - EV) / CPI
ETC = BAC - EV (Correct answer)

Correct answer: ETC = BAC - EV

ETC = BAC - EV is used when past variances are atypical and future work is expected to proceed at the original budgeted rate.

Question 120: Which concept refers to the total amount of work products and activities that the project will perform?

Project scope (Correct answer)
Project schedule
Work breakdown
Product scope

Correct answer: Project scope

Project scope encompasses all the work — and only the work — required to complete the project successfully.

Question 121: Which EVM baseline is directly affected when the project manager formally approves a scope change through integrated change control?

Schedule baseline only
Cost baseline only
The project charter
Performance Measurement Baseline (PMB) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Performance Measurement Baseline (PMB)

Approved scope changes update the PMB, which integrates scope, schedule, and cost — all three baselines may be adjusted.

Question 122: A company requires all IT projects to undergo a security review before go-live. The project manager skips this step due to schedule pressure. This MOST directly violates which concept?

Stakeholder engagement best practices
Quality management standards
Organizational governance and compliance requirements (Correct answer)
Resource management principles

Correct answer: Organizational governance and compliance requirements

Skipping a mandatory organizational review violates the governance and compliance requirements established by the organization's policies.

Question 123: Which of the following components is LEAST likely to be found in a comprehensive risk register?

The assigned risk owner
The planned risk response
A detailed project schedule (Correct answer)
The probability and impact of the risk

Correct answer: A detailed project schedule

A risk register is a document that captures details of identified individual project risks. It typically includes a risk description, category, probability, impact, a risk score, the assigned owner, and the planned response. A detailed project schedule is a separate, more extensive project document.

Question 124: What is the impact on the critical path if a non-critical activity's duration increases by an amount greater than its total float?

The project manager must re-baseline the schedule
Other non-critical activities absorb the excess duration
The critical path remains unchanged but project cost increases
The activity becomes part of the critical path and the project end date is delayed (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The activity becomes part of the critical path and the project end date is delayed

When a non-critical activity's duration increase exceeds its total float, its path becomes the new critical path (or a parallel critical path), extending the project end date.

Question 125: A customer requests a feature during execution that was explicitly listed as an exclusion in the scope statement. The PM should:

Add it immediately to maintain the relationship
Refuse the request without evaluation since it was excluded
Add it to the backlog for the next project phase
Evaluate the request and process it through integrated change control (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Evaluate the request and process it through integrated change control

Even excluded items can be added via formal change control; the PM should evaluate and process the request properly rather than refusing outright.

Question 126: A project manager sets aside $50,000 to handle identified risks and $20,000 for unknown risks. What are these reserves called, respectively?

Management reserve and contingency reserve
Operational reserve and risk allowance
Contingency reserve and management reserve (Correct answer)
Risk budget and contingency fund

Correct answer: Contingency reserve and management reserve

Contingency reserves address identified known-unknown risks, while management reserves are for unknown-unknown risks that were not anticipated.

Question 127: In project management, 'lessons learned' are best captured during which phase?

Executing only
Initiating only
Planning only
Throughout the project and especially during closing (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Throughout the project and especially during closing

Lessons learned should be documented throughout the project lifecycle and are formally compiled and archived during the closing phase.

Question 128: A control chart shows data points consistently trending toward the upper control limit over 8 consecutive measurements. This pattern indicates:

A process performing exactly as designed
Acceptable common cause variation
A process that is out of control (Correct answer)
Random variation within acceptable limits

Correct answer: A process that is out of control

The rule of seven states that seven or more consecutive points trending in one direction signal a non-random, out-of-control process.

Question 129: In the context of an interactive communication model, what element is sent from the receiver back to the sender to indicate a message was received and to provide a response?

Noise
Medium
Encoder
Feedback (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Feedback

The interactive model of communication describes communication as a two-way process. Feedback is the crucial element that the receiver sends back to the sender in response to the initial message, allowing for clarification and a more dynamic exchange.

Question 130: Which governance artifact formally defines the decision-making authority levels for a project?

Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM)
Risk register
Delegation of Authority Matrix (Correct answer)
Project charter

Correct answer: Delegation of Authority Matrix

A Delegation of Authority Matrix specifies who has authority to make decisions at various spending or risk thresholds.

Question 131: A project has a BAC of $200,000, EV of $80,000, and AC of $100,000. What is the Cost Performance Index (CPI)?

0.75
1.00
1.25
0.80 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 0.80

CPI = EV / AC = $80,000 / $100,000 = 0.80, meaning you are getting $0.80 of value for every $1 spent.

Question 132: A project manager wants to assess whether current engagement activities are effective. Which output BEST provides this information?

Change log
Work performance data (Correct answer)
Issue log
Stakeholder register

Correct answer: Work performance data

Work performance data captures raw observations about stakeholder engagement activities and their outcomes.

Question 133: What is the key difference between resource smoothing and resource leveling?

Resource smoothing may extend the project end date; resource leveling cannot
Resource smoothing works within total float and will not delay the project end date; resource leveling may extend it (Correct answer)
Resource leveling is applied before planning; resource smoothing is applied during execution
The two terms are interchangeable in the PMBOK Guide

Correct answer: Resource smoothing works within total float and will not delay the project end date; resource leveling may extend it

Resource smoothing adjusts activities only within available float, preserving the project end date, while resource leveling may push the end date to resolve resource conflicts.

Question 134: What are the terms of the expenses or advantages that may be quickly calculated in dollars?

Indirect Costs
Tangible Costs (Correct answer)
Management Reserves
Schedule Variance

Correct answer: Tangible Costs

Tangible costs (or benefits) are those expenses or advantages that can be easily quantified and measured in monetary terms. These are direct, measurable financial values that have a clear impact on the project's budget or financial outcome. They are straightforward to include in cost estimates and financial analyses, providing concrete data for decision-making.

Question 135: An organization has a Project Management Office (PMO) that provides project managers with templates, best practices, and training upon request. The PMO serves as a repository of information but does not enforce compliance with its methodologies. What type of PMO is this?

Supportive (Correct answer)
Hybrid
Directive
Controlling

Correct answer: Supportive

A Supportive PMO operates with a low degree of control. It acts as a consultative body and a project repository, providing resources like templates, best practices, and lessons learned. It does not mandate compliance or directly manage projects.

Question 136: In agile projects, what is the role of 'Definition of Done' (DoD)?

A legal document signed by the sponsor at project initiation
The final acceptance criteria provided by the customer at project close
A shared team agreement on quality criteria a backlog item must meet to be complete (Correct answer)
A list of user stories for the next sprint

Correct answer: A shared team agreement on quality criteria a backlog item must meet to be complete

The DoD is a transparent, agreed-upon checklist ensuring every increment meets quality standards before being called complete.

Question 137: During a backward pass in CPM, how is the Late Start (LS) of an activity calculated?

LS = Late Finish + Duration
LS = Early Start + Total Float
LS = Early Finish - Duration
LS = Late Finish - Duration (Correct answer)

Correct answer: LS = Late Finish - Duration

Late Start is calculated as Late Finish minus the activity's duration, working backwards through the network.

Question 138: A project manager is asked to deliver a product 'fit for use.' This most closely relates to which concept?

Risk
Schedule
Scope
Quality (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Quality

'Fit for use' is a core definition of quality — the product meets the needs for which it was intended.

Question 139: A PM sends a project update email but later learns the recipient misunderstood the key decision. According to communication theory, the failure most likely occurred during:

All of the above equally
Encoding by the sender
Transmission over the medium
Decoding by the receiver (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Decoding by the receiver

Misunderstanding typically occurs during decoding when the receiver interprets the message differently than intended.

Question 140: Which document serves as the primary input for developing risk responses in the Plan Risk Responses process?

Risk register (Correct answer)
Lessons learned register
Risk management plan
Issue log

Correct answer: Risk register

The risk register contains identified risks, their probability/impact ratings, and priority rankings that drive response planning.

Question 141: What is the term for earned value less real cost?

Cost Variance (Correct answer)
Actual Cost
Cost Control
Earned Value

Correct answer: Cost Variance

Cost Variance (CV) is a key metric in Earned Value Management (EVM) that measures the difference between the Earned Value (EV) and the Actual Cost (AC) of work performed. A positive CV indicates that the project is under budget, while a negative CV means it is over budget. It helps project managers understand the financial performance of the project.

Question 142: Project managers utilize a time-phased budget to measure and monitor cost performance.

Cost Estimating
Cost Variance
Cost Baseline (Correct answer)
Cost Budgeting

Correct answer: Cost Baseline

The Cost Baseline is a time-phased budget that project managers use to measure and monitor cost performance throughout the project. It represents the approved budget for the project, broken down over time, and serves as a benchmark against which actual costs are compared to determine variances and assess project financial health.

Question 143: Controlling budget fluctuations for projects is referred to as _________.

Cost Estimating
Cost Control (Correct answer)
Cost Baseline
Cost Management Plan

Correct answer: Cost Control

Cost control is the process of monitoring the status of the project budget, managing changes to the cost baseline, and influencing the factors that create cost variances. Its primary goal is to keep project expenditures within the approved funding and ensure the project is completed within its financial limits. Effective cost control helps prevent budget overruns and ensures financial accountability.

Question 144: In EVM, what does the term 'Planned Value' represent?

The cost of work actually performed
The total project budget
The value of work actually completed
The authorized budget for scheduled work up to the status date (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The authorized budget for scheduled work up to the status date

Planned Value (PV) is the authorized budget assigned to the work scheduled to be accomplished by a specific date.

Question 145: Which statement best describes the relationship between the Sprint Goal and Sprint Planning?

The Sprint Goal is set by the Scrum Master based on velocity
The Sprint Goal is created after Sprint Planning ends
The Sprint Goal is brought by the Product Owner and refined during Sprint Planning (Correct answer)
The Sprint Goal is optional and set only for long Sprints

Correct answer: The Sprint Goal is brought by the Product Owner and refined during Sprint Planning

The Product Owner proposes a Sprint Goal before planning, and the Scrum Team crafts the final Sprint Goal collaboratively during Sprint Planning.

Question 146: A project has two parallel paths. Path 1 (A -> B -> C) has a total duration of 15 days. Path 2 (D -> E) has a total duration of 10 days. Both paths must be completed for the project to finish. What is the total float for activity D, which has a duration of 4 days?

0 days
10 days
5 days (Correct answer)
15 days

Correct answer: 5 days

The critical path is the longer of the two paths, which is Path 1 with a duration of 15 days. This sets the project duration. Path 2 has a duration of 10 days. The total float for Path 2 is the difference between the critical path duration and its own duration: 15 days - 10 days = 5 days. This float is shared among the activities on that path, so activity D has a total float of 5 days.

Question 147: What is the purpose of a baseline in project cost management?

To establish the team's minimum performance standards
To define the approved version of the project budget used for comparison (Correct answer)
To identify the lowest-cost vendors
To set the minimum acceptable quality level

Correct answer: To define the approved version of the project budget used for comparison

The cost baseline is the approved time-phased budget against which actual project costs are compared and monitored.

Question 148: A project uses the 50/50 rule for earned value. A $20,000 task has just started. How much EV is credited?

$10,000 (Correct answer)
$20,000
$0
$5,000

Correct answer: $10,000

The 50/50 rule credits 50% of the budget when work starts and the remaining 50% when work is complete, so $10,000 is credited at start.

Question 149: Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) Dictionary?

To provide a graphical, hierarchical view of the project deliverables.
To track the status of project deliverables and manage changes to the scope baseline.
To authorize the project and provide the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources.
To provide detailed information about each component in the WBS, such as work package descriptions, acceptance criteria, and required resources. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To provide detailed information about each component in the WBS, such as work package descriptions, acceptance criteria, and required resources.

The WBS Dictionary is a document that provides detailed information for each component in the WBS. [6, 11] This includes a description of the work, deliverables, acceptance criteria, milestones, and resource requirements, adding necessary context to the visual WBS chart. [15, 17]

Question 150: A project team determines that a potential risk has a very low probability of occurring and a low impact on the project objectives. The cost to develop any mitigation or avoidance strategy far outweighs the potential damage. The team documents the risk and decides to set aside a small amount of money in the budget to deal with it only if it occurs. This is an example of:

Active Acceptance (Correct answer)
Risk Avoidance
Risk Ignorance
Passive Acceptance

Correct answer: Active Acceptance

Active Acceptance involves acknowledging a risk and making a deliberate plan to respond if it occurs, which often includes establishing a contingency reserve (of time, money, or resources). Passive acceptance would involve documenting the risk but not setting aside specific reserves.

Question 151: A project manager notices that two activities on the critical path have a Finish-to-Start lag of +2 days. How does this lag affect the project?

It has no effect since both activities are already critical
It adds 2 days to the project duration (Correct answer)
It creates a parallel path opportunity
It reduces the project duration by 2 days

Correct answer: It adds 2 days to the project duration

A positive lag on the critical path extends the overall project duration because it mandates a waiting period between the predecessor's finish and the successor's start.

Question 152: During a weekly status meeting for a construction project, a key stakeholder suggests adding an additional room to the building, which was not part of the original plan. This represents a potential change to the project's:

Scope (Correct answer)
Project baseline
Communication plan
Quality metrics

Correct answer: Scope

The project scope defines all the work required to complete the project deliverables. Adding a new room is a significant change to the features and work required, directly impacting the project scope. This situation is a classic example of potential scope creep.

Question 153: According to the PMBOK Guide, which conflict resolution technique is considered the most effective for achieving a lasting resolution?

Smoothing/Accommodating
Compromise/Reconcile
Forcing/Directing
Collaborate/Problem Solve (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Collaborate/Problem Solve

Collaborating/Problem Solving brings all parties together to examine multiple viewpoints and reach a mutually acceptable solution, producing the most durable and satisfactory outcome.

Question 154: What does 'portfolio management' involve in relation to projects?

Selecting and managing a collection of projects and programs aligned with strategic goals (Correct answer)
Overseeing the financial reporting of individual projects
Coordinating resources between two related projects
Managing all tasks within a single large project

Correct answer: Selecting and managing a collection of projects and programs aligned with strategic goals

Portfolio management focuses on selecting and prioritizing the right mix of projects and programs to achieve organizational strategic objectives.

Question 155: A PM has 8 team members. Using the communication channels formula n(n-1)/2, how many potential communication channels exist?

64
28 (Correct answer)
36
56

Correct answer: 28

With 9 total participants (PM + 8 members): 9×8/2 = 36; with just the 8 members: 8×7/2 = 28 channels among the team alone.

Question 156: What does EVM require that traditional cost accounting alone does NOT provide?

Integration of scope, schedule, and cost into a single performance measurement (Correct answer)
Monthly variance reporting to stakeholders
Identification of individual resource costs
Tracking of actual expenditures against invoices

Correct answer: Integration of scope, schedule, and cost into a single performance measurement

EVM uniquely integrates scope, schedule, and cost, enabling objective performance measurement that traditional cost tracking cannot provide.

Question 157: During a Sprint Review, the Scrum Team demonstrates a new feature to key stakeholders. The stakeholders are impressed but provide feedback that a different workflow would be more valuable to end-users. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

The Product Owner should thank the stakeholders for their feedback and consider adding it to the Product Backlog for future prioritization. (Correct answer)
The Scrum Master should reject the feedback as it falls outside the scope of the current sprint.
The developers should open a new sprint dedicated solely to addressing the stakeholder feedback.
The team should immediately start working on the suggested workflow changes.

Correct answer: The Product Owner should thank the stakeholders for their feedback and consider adding it to the Product Backlog for future prioritization.

The purpose of the Sprint Review is to inspect the increment and adapt the Product Backlog based on stakeholder feedback. The Product Owner is responsible for managing the Product Backlog, so the correct action is for them to take the feedback and determine how it should be prioritized against other work.

Question 158: Which of the following offers the lowest level of estimation accuracy?

Definitive estimate
Rough order of magnitude (Correct answer)
Budget estimate
WBS estimate

Correct answer: Rough order of magnitude

A Rough Order of Magnitude (ROM) estimate is typically performed very early in the project lifecycle, often during the initiation phase, with limited information available. It provides a very broad estimate, usually with an accuracy range of -25% to +75% (or even -50% to +100%). This makes it the least accurate type of estimate, but it is useful for initial feasibility studies and high-level decision-making.

Question 159: As a project manager, you should hold a:________ to incite interest in the project, welcome team members, and establish project expectations.

Kickoff party (Correct answer)
A rave
Tollgate review
Stakeholder drive

Correct answer: Kickoff party

A project kickoff meeting (often referred to as a kickoff party) is a crucial event at the start of a project, bringing together the project team and key stakeholders. Its purpose is to formally launch the project, introduce team members, review project objectives and scope, clarify roles and responsibilities, and build initial team cohesion and enthusiasm. This meeting sets the stage for successful collaboration and establishes clear expectations.

Question 160: Which of the following is a primary advantage of virtual teams in project management?

Lower overall project budgets due to reduced travel requirements
Elimination of communication challenges through technology
Access to specialized expertise regardless of geographic location (Correct answer)
Reduced need for project management tools and communication plans

Correct answer: Access to specialized expertise regardless of geographic location

Virtual teams allow organizations to assemble the best talent for a project without geographic constraints, enabling access to highly specialized skills anywhere in the world.

Question 161: What is the purpose of a Sprint Retrospective in Scrum?

Groom and prioritize the product backlog
Review the product increment with stakeholders
Inspect and adapt the team's process for continuous improvement (Correct answer)
Plan the next sprint's backlog items

Correct answer: Inspect and adapt the team's process for continuous improvement

The Sprint Retrospective focuses on how the team worked together and identifies specific improvements for the next sprint.

Question 162: A project manager has recently been given the project charter and preliminary project scope statement as well as been assigned to a new project. The project manager's initial task is to:

Create a project scope statement.
Begin work on a project management plan
Analyze project risk
Confirm that all the stakeholders have contributed to the scope. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Confirm that all the stakeholders have contributed to the scope.

Upon receiving the project charter and preliminary scope, a project manager's initial critical task is to engage with stakeholders to ensure their requirements and expectations are fully understood and incorporated into the project scope. This proactive engagement helps prevent scope creep, ensures alignment, and builds a solid foundation for project success. Confirming stakeholder input on scope is foundational before proceeding with detailed planning.

Question 163: Which of the following is NOT a standard classification level used in a Stakeholder Engagement Assessment Matrix?

Resistant
Involved (Correct answer)
Supportive
Unaware

Correct answer: Involved

The five standard classification levels for stakeholder engagement are Unaware, Resistant, Neutral, Supportive, and Leading. 'Involved' is a general term but not one of the specific categories used in the matrix to assess a stakeholder's attitude and engagement toward the project.

Question 164: A product owner is unavailable for Sprint Planning. What should the Scrum Master do?

Let the Development Team plan without the Product Owner
Cancel the Sprint Planning and reschedule (Correct answer)
Postpone the Sprint until the Product Owner is available
Have the Scrum Master represent the Product Owner

Correct answer: Cancel the Sprint Planning and reschedule

Sprint Planning requires the Product Owner to clarify backlog items and accept the Sprint Goal, so it should be rescheduled rather than held without them.

Question 165: When using three-point estimation for PERT, what is the expected duration if optimistic = 4 days, most likely = 7 days, and pessimistic = 16 days?

7 days
10 days
8 days (Correct answer)
9 days

Correct answer: 8 days

PERT expected duration = (O + 4M + P) / 6 = (4 + 28 + 16) / 6 = 48 / 6 = 8 days.

Question 166: What is the role of a project steering committee?

To conduct daily stand-up meetings with the team
To provide strategic oversight, resolve escalated issues, and approve major changes (Correct answer)
To manage procurement contracts directly
To write the project schedule and assign tasks

Correct answer: To provide strategic oversight, resolve escalated issues, and approve major changes

A steering committee provides high-level governance by making strategic decisions, approving significant changes, and removing organizational barriers.

Question 167: The proportion of earned value to real cost is ________ . It can be used to calculate the project's anticipated cost of completion.

Budget at Completion
Cost Performance Index (Correct answer)
Cost Estimating
Cost Variance

Correct answer: Cost Performance Index

The Cost Performance Index (CPI) is an Earned Value Management (EVM) metric calculated as the ratio of Earned Value (EV) to Actual Cost (AC). It indicates the efficiency of the project's budget utilization. A CPI greater than 1 means the project is under budget, while less than 1 means it is over budget, and it is crucial for forecasting the Estimate at Completion (EAC).

Question 168: An organization is transitioning from a traditional Waterfall methodology to a more Agile way of working. They decide to implement a hybrid model as an intermediate step. Which of the following is the BIGGEST challenge the project manager is likely to face during this transition?

Resistance to change from team members and stakeholders accustomed to a single, structured methodology. (Correct answer)
A lack of available project management software that supports hybrid models.
The inability to use earned value management (EVM) metrics in a hybrid environment.
Difficulty in creating a detailed Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) for the entire project.

Correct answer: Resistance to change from team members and stakeholders accustomed to a single, structured methodology.

One of the most significant challenges in adopting a hybrid model is managing the cultural and mindset shift. Team members and stakeholders used to the rigid structure of Waterfall may resist the flexibility and iterative nature of Agile components, leading to confusion, communication breakdowns, and process conflicts. Overcoming this resistance requires strong change management, training, and clear communication.

Question 169: In project resource management, the 'halo effect' most commonly refers to:

Rewarding team members based on project outcomes rather than individual effort
Using past project data to predict future resource availability
Assuming that competence in one area implies competence in an unrelated area (Correct answer)
Assigning too many resources to a single high-priority activity

Correct answer: Assuming that competence in one area implies competence in an unrelated area

The halo effect is the cognitive bias of assuming that because someone excels in one skill, they will also excel in unrelated areas, which can lead to poor resource assignment decisions.

Question 170: What distinguishes a Sprint Retrospective from a Sprint Review in terms of audience?

Both include all stakeholders
The Retrospective includes stakeholders; the Review does not
Neither includes the Product Owner
The Review includes stakeholders; the Retrospective is for the Scrum Team only (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The Review includes stakeholders; the Retrospective is for the Scrum Team only

The Sprint Review is an open inspection where stakeholders are invited, while the Sprint Retrospective is an internal Scrum Team ceremony focused on continuous improvement.

Question 171: Which technique helps a project manager ensure all compliance requirements are tracked and met throughout the project?

Compliance requirements traceability matrix (Correct answer)
Earned value analysis
Monte Carlo simulation
Critical path method

Correct answer: Compliance requirements traceability matrix

A compliance requirements traceability matrix maps each regulatory or policy requirement to specific project deliverables, ensuring nothing is overlooked.

Question 172: What is the term of the cost estimate that offers a precise estimate of project costs?

Direct Costs
Contingency Reserves
Baseline
Definitive Estimate (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Definitive Estimate

A Definitive Estimate is the most accurate type of cost estimate, typically performed late in the project planning phase when the scope is well-defined. It provides a precise estimate of project costs, usually within a range of -5% to +10% or -5% to +15%. This level of accuracy is achieved through detailed analysis of work packages and vendor quotes.

Question 173: You recently began working on a project for a manufacturing. According to the project team, they are 30% through with it. From the project's $250,000 budget, you have already spent $25,000 of it. What is the project's earned value?

$25,000
10 percent
$75,000 (Correct answer)
none of the above

Correct answer: $75,000

Earned Value (EV) measures the value of the work actually performed, expressed in terms of the approved budget allocated to that work. To calculate EV, you multiply the total project budget by the percentage of work completed. In this scenario, 30% of the $250,000 budget is $75,000, which represents the monetary value of the work accomplished to date.

Question 174: In which industry was the Critical Path Method (CPM) originally developed in the late 1950s?

Information technology
Aerospace and defense
Construction and chemical manufacturing (Correct answer)
Healthcare and pharmaceuticals

Correct answer: Construction and chemical manufacturing

CPM was developed jointly by DuPont and Remington Rand in 1957 for managing chemical plant maintenance and construction projects.

Question 175: What is the primary purpose of the Daily Scrum?

To inspect progress toward the Sprint Goal and create a plan for the next 24 hours. (Correct answer)
To provide a detailed status report to the Product Owner and stakeholders.
To solve complex technical problems and re-estimate tasks in the Sprint Backlog.
To review and re-prioritize the Product Backlog for the next sprint.

Correct answer: To inspect progress toward the Sprint Goal and create a plan for the next 24 hours.

The Daily Scrum is a 15-minute event for the Developers of the Scrum Team to inspect progress toward the Sprint Goal and adapt the Sprint Backlog as necessary, adjusting the upcoming planned work for the next day. It is not a status meeting for external stakeholders. While it may identify impediments, it is not the forum for detailed problem-solving.

Question 176: Which of the following is a key tool or output of the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process, used for comparing the current and desired engagement levels of project stakeholders?

Communications Management Plan
Stakeholder Engagement Assessment Matrix (Correct answer)
Stakeholder Register
Issue Log

Correct answer: Stakeholder Engagement Assessment Matrix

The Stakeholder Engagement Assessment Matrix is the specific tool used within the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process to map out current versus desired engagement levels. The Stakeholder Register is an input to this process, while the Issue Log is used later in managing engagement, and the Communications Management Plan outlines how communication will occur.

Question 177: Which of the following BEST describes the primary purpose of a project governance framework?

To provide a detailed, day-to-day work plan for the project team.
To exclusively manage and log project risks and issues.
To establish the structure, processes, and decision-making models for managing and controlling the project. (Correct answer)
To replace the need for an assigned project manager through automation.

Correct answer: To establish the structure, processes, and decision-making models for managing and controlling the project.

A project governance framework provides the overarching structure for project control and decision-making. It defines roles, responsibilities, and the processes for how the project will be directed, managed, and held accountable to ensure it aligns with strategic objectives. It is the 'who' and 'how' of decision-making, not the 'what' of daily tasks.

Question 178: Which of the following is an example of a REGULATORY compliance requirement for a US-based construction project?

Submitting weekly status reports to the PMO
Using the PM's preferred scheduling tool
Adhering to OSHA safety standards on the job site (Correct answer)
Following the project sponsor's preferred reporting format

Correct answer: Adhering to OSHA safety standards on the job site

OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration) sets legally mandated safety standards that all US construction projects must comply with.

Question 179: Which technique involves breaking down deliverables into progressively smaller components until they can be reliably estimated and managed?

Rolling wave planning
Prototyping
Benchmarking
Decomposition (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Decomposition

Decomposition is the technique used to subdivide project deliverables and work into smaller, more manageable components within the WBS.

Question 180: Which of the following is NOT typically an input to the Control Scope process?

Risk register (Correct answer)
Work performance data
Scope baseline
Requirements traceability matrix

Correct answer: Risk register

The risk register is not a primary input to Control Scope; key inputs include the scope baseline, work performance data, and requirements traceability matrix.

Question 181: A project team chooses to use a more proven technology instead of a cutting-edge one to eliminate the chance of a technical failure risk. This is an example of:

Escalate
Transfer
Avoid (Correct answer)
Mitigate

Correct answer: Avoid

Changing the approach to eliminate the risk entirely is avoidance, the most aggressive threat response strategy.

Project Management Professional (PMP) Exam

The PMP exam tests project management knowledge across predictive, agile, and hybrid approaches.

180

Questions

230 min

Time Limit

61%

To Pass

Checking for saved progress...

Exam Rules

You can skip questions and return to them later
Flag questions for review before submitting
No feedback shown until you submit the entire exam
Unanswered questions count as wrong — answer everything
10 pretest questions are mixed in and don't affect your score
Timer auto-submits when time runs out
Your progress is auto-saved every 30 seconds

These practice questions were written with AI tools. They are not real exam questions. We have not yet matched this exam's facts to an official source, so confirm fees, dates and rules with the exam body. Not reviewed by a subject-matter expert. Editorial policy