Physician Assistant Infectious Diseases 3

Question 1

What is the current CDC-recommended treatment for uncomplicated gonorrhea in an adult weighing under 150 kg?

Accepted Answer

Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM once

Answer

Since 2020, CDC guidelines recommend a single 500 mg IM dose of ceftriaxone, plus doxycycline if chlamydia has not been ruled out.

Question 2

Which treatment is recommended for primary syphilis in a nonpregnant patient without penicillin allergy?

Accepted Answer

Benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million units IM once

Answer

Early syphilis (primary, secondary, or early latent) is treated with one IM dose of benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million units.

Question 3

A few hours after receiving penicillin for secondary syphilis, a patient develops fever, chills, myalgias, and a worse rash. What is the most likely explanation?

Accepted Answer

Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction

Answer

The Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction is an acute febrile response to lysed spirochetes, and it is managed supportively.

Question 4

A painless genital ulcer with a clean base and indurated border, with painless lymphadenopathy, is most consistent with which infection?

Accepted Answer

Primary syphilis

Answer

A syphilitic chancre is classically a single painless, indurated, clean-based ulcer.

Question 5

Which antibiotic class carries an FDA boxed warning for tendon rupture, especially in older adults and patients on corticosteroids?

Accepted Answer

Fluoroquinolones

Answer

Fluoroquinolones raise the risk of tendinitis and Achilles tendon rupture, and corticosteroid use and age over 60 increase the risk further.

Physician Assistant Practice Test

Physician Assistant Practice Test

Physician Assistant Infectious Diseases 3