ORE Part 1 Exam at a Glance

What changed for ORE Part 1 in 2026

• Oct 25, 2026: Delivery changed to Computer-based, at London venues (previously Computer-based, at venues in London).^[1]
• Oct 25, 2026: Number of questions changed to 2 computer-based papers of extended matching and single best answer questions (previously 2 papers (A and B) of extended matching and single best answer questions).^[1]
• Oct 25, 2026: Passing score changed to Standard-set pass mark, varies by paper and sitting; both papers must be passed (previously Standard-set pass mark that varies by paper and sitting; both papers must be passed).^[1]
• Oct 25, 2026: Score release changed to Within 30 working days (previously Within 30 working days, by email).^[1]
• Oct 25, 2026: Retake policy changed to Up to 4 attempts (previously Maximum 4 attempts).^[3]
• Oct 25, 2026: Validity changed to Part 2 within 5 years of first Part 1 attempt (previously Part 2 must be passed within 5 years of first Part 1 attempt).^[3]

ORE Part 1 Study Tips

• Create a structured study schedule at least 4-6 weeks before your ORE Part 1 exam date.
• Focus on understanding core concepts rather than memorising answers for the Overseas Registration Examination Part 1.
• Use our free practice tests to identify weak areas and track your progress over time.
• Review the official ORE Part 1 exam syllabus to ensure complete topic coverage.
• Take timed practice sessions to build your exam pace and reduce test-day anxiety.

Free ORE Part 1 Study Tools

Interactive ORE Part 1 resources on PracticeTestGeeks, free to start:

• ORE Part 1 flashcards — review key terms and concepts card by card
• ORE Part 1 study guide — topic-by-topic overview of what the exam covers
• ORE Part 1 cheat sheet — one-page printable summary for last-minute review

According to General Dental Council, “You must pass both papers in order to progress to Part 2.”^[1]

Worked examples: how to reason through ORE Part 1 questions

These are practice questions written for this site, not questions from the real exam. Each explanation shows why the right answer is right and why the others are wrong.

Example 1

Question: How many root canals does a mandibular first molar typically have?

1. Two
2. Three
3. Four
4. Five

Answer: B. Three

Explanation:

Three is correct. The mesial root usually carries mesiobuccal and mesiolingual canals, and the distal root usually has a single canal, which gives the typical total. Two is wrong because it ignores the split in the mesial root. Four describes a variation, since an additional distal canal is found in some teeth, but that is not the typical pattern. Five is more than this tooth normally has. The rule to remember: learn the typical canal pattern for each tooth first, then treat extra canals as common variations to look for on radiographs and during access, not as the default answer.

Example 2

Question: A patient taking the direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) apixaban attends for extraction. What is the current SDCEP advice?

1. Stop the DOAC 48 hours before extraction
2. Continue the DOAC and use local haemostatic measures
3. Switch to warfarin before extraction
4. Only extract under general anaesthetic in hospital

Answer: B. Continue the DOAC and use local haemostatic measures

Explanation:

Continuing the DOAC and using local haemostatic measures is correct. Current SDCEP advice is that most patients on a DOAC such as apixaban can have simple extractions without interrupting the drug, with measures like sutures, oxidised cellulose and tranexamic acid to control bleeding. Stopping the DOAC 48 hours before is wrong because it exposes the patient to avoidable clotting risk. Switching to warfarin adds a different drug with monitoring needs and no benefit here. General anaesthetic in hospital is not required for routine extractions. The rule to remember: do not stop anticoagulants by default for routine dental surgery; plan local haemostasis and check the current guidance.

Example 3

Question: Which coagulation pathway is assessed by the prothrombin time (PT) and INR?

1. Intrinsic pathway
2. Extrinsic pathway
3. Common pathway only
4. Fibrinolytic pathway

Answer: B. Extrinsic pathway

Explanation:

The extrinsic pathway is correct. PT and INR reflect the extrinsic pathway along with the common pathway, which is why they are used to monitor warfarin. The intrinsic pathway is wrong because it is assessed by the APTT, which is the usual test for heparin monitoring. Common pathway only is wrong because the extrinsic factors, notably factor VII, also affect the result. The fibrinolytic pathway breaks down clots and is not what these tests measure. The rule to remember: PT and INR go with the extrinsic pathway and warfarin; APTT goes with the intrinsic pathway and heparin.

How to use these practice tests

Start with the official material. Read the GDC ORE Part 1 page and the about-the-ORE page so you know the format, the rules on attempts and the dates you are aiming for. Then use the practice sets to find where you are weakest.

1. Take the free ORE Part 1 practice test first as a baseline, and note which subjects feel slow or uncertain.
2. Work through the subject sets one at a time, starting with your weakest. Useful starting points are Clinical Dentistry, Medical Sciences and Pharmacology in Dentistry.
3. For each wrong answer, write down the rule behind it, not just the correct option. Review those notes before each new session.
4. Cover basic science and practical topics too, such as Oral Biology and Pathology, Dental Radiology and Oral Surgery.
5. Closer to your sitting, do longer timed runs on a computer to get used to reading extended matching and single best answer questions for hours at a time.

Treat our questions as practice for the style and for checking understanding, and rely on GDC material and your textbooks for what to learn.

Ready to Pass the ORE Part 1?

Join thousands of candidates who have used our free practice tests to prepare for the Overseas Registration Examination Part 1. Start practising today and build the confidence you need to succeed.

For more in-depth preparation strategies, read our PELLET B Test Scoring and Preparation — covering exam format, scoring, and proven study techniques.

Sample ORE Part 1 Practice Questions

Try these questions from our free ORE Part 1 practice tests. The correct answer and an explanation follow each question.

1. The Vickers Hardness (VHN) test measures which material property?

   • A. Tensile strength
   • B. Resistance to permanent surface indentation
   • C. Elastic (Young's) modulus
   • D. Fracture toughness

   Answer: B. Resistance to permanent surface indentation

   The Vickers Hardness test measures a material's resistance to permanent surface deformation by pressing a diamond pyramid indenter into the surface under a defined load and measuring the indentation size.

2. What is the significance of a 'cone beam CT' (CBCT) scan in dental practice compared to conventional dental X-rays?

   • A. CBCT provides 3D volumetric imaging but delivers significantly higher radiation dose than 2D dental radiographs — use must be justified by need for 3D information unavailable from conventional imaging
   • B. CBCT has no higher dose than a standard periapical
   • C. CBCT replaces all conventional dental radiography
   • D. CBCT is the first-line radiograph for all new patients

   Answer: A. CBCT provides 3D volumetric imaging but delivers significantly higher radiation dose than 2D dental radiographs — use must be justified by need for 3D information unavailable from conventional imaging

   CBCT provides three-dimensional imaging crucial for implant planning, surgical anatomy, and complex endodontics. However, the effective dose is significantly higher than conventional dental radiographs (approximately 40–500 µSv), requiring strict justification.

3. What is the mechanism of action of articaine, the most widely used local anaesthetic in UK dental practice?

   • A. Blocks voltage-gated sodium channels in the neuronal membrane, preventing action potential propagation and nerve conduction
   • B. Stimulates GABA receptors to inhibit pain transmission
   • C. Blocks calcium channels to reduce neurotransmitter release
   • D. Acts centrally on the thalamus to reduce pain perception

   Answer: A. Blocks voltage-gated sodium channels in the neuronal membrane, preventing action potential propagation and nerve conduction

   Articaine (like all local anaesthetics) blocks voltage-gated Na+ channels in the axon membrane, preventing depolarisation and action potential propagation, achieving reversible nerve conduction blockade.

4. What is the principal risk from low-dose ionising radiation in dental practice?

   • A. Stochastic effects — probabilistic cancer induction and genetic effects with no threshold dose; risk is proportional to cumulative dose
   • B. Deterministic effects (tissue reactions) like radiation burns at all dental doses
   • C. Immediate acute radiation sickness
   • D. No risk exists at dental X-ray doses

   Answer: A. Stochastic effects — probabilistic cancer induction and genetic effects with no threshold dose; risk is proportional to cumulative dose

   At the low doses used in dentistry, the primary concern is stochastic effects: radiation-induced DNA damage that may (probabilistically) lead to cancer or heritable genetic effects. These have no threshold — risk exists at any dose but is proportionally very small at dental doses.

Take the full ORE Part 1 practice test

Sources & last verified

1. General Dental Council — number of questions, time limit, passing score, delivery (official source). “It consists of two computer-based exam papers:” Verified Oct 25, 2026 · source checked Oct 24, 2026.
2. General Dental Council — exam fee (official source). “Part 1 fee: £485 (reduced by 17%, from £584)” Verified Oct 25, 2026 · source checked Oct 24, 2026.
3. General Dental Council — retake policy, validity (official source). “You are allowed up to four attempts at each part of the ORE.” Verified Oct 25, 2026 · source checked Oct 24, 2026.

How we verify: editorial & fact-checking policy. Report an error: contact us.