NP Family Nurse Practitioner 2

Question 1

A 58-year-old male with type 2 diabetes presents with an HbA1c of 9.2% despite metformin 1000mg twice daily. What is the most appropriate next step?

Accepted Answer

Add a GLP-1 receptor agonist

Answer

Adding a GLP-1 receptor agonist is appropriate for uncontrolled T2DM on metformin, offering both glycemic control and cardiovascular benefits.

Question 2

A 4-year-old presents with a barky cough, inspiratory stridor, and low-grade fever. The most likely diagnosis is:

Accepted Answer

Croup (laryngotracheobronchitis)

Answer

Croup presents with the classic barky (seal-like) cough, inspiratory stridor, and low-grade fever, typically caused by parainfluenza virus.

Question 3

Which medication is considered first-line treatment for uncomplicated urinary tract infections in non-pregnant women?

Accepted Answer

Nitrofurantoin 100mg BID x 5 days

Answer

Nitrofurantoin for 5 days is first-line for uncomplicated UTI due to high efficacy, low resistance rates, and minimal collateral damage to gut flora.

Question 4

A 32-year-old woman at 10 weeks gestation is found to have a TSH of 6.8 mIU/L with normal free T4. What is the most appropriate management?

Accepted Answer

Start levothyroxine therapy

Answer

Subclinical hypothyroidism in pregnancy (TSH >2.5 mIU/L in first trimester) warrants levothyroxine to prevent adverse fetal neurodevelopmental outcomes.

Question 5

A 70-year-old patient on warfarin presents with an INR of 8.5 and no active bleeding. The best management is:

Accepted Answer

Hold warfarin and give oral vitamin K 2.5mg

Answer

For supratherapeutic INR without bleeding, holding warfarin and administering low-dose oral vitamin K (1–2.5mg) is the recommended approach.

NP - Nurse Practitioner Practice Test

NP - Nurse Practitioner Practice Test

NP Family Nurse Practitioner 2