A 58-year-old male with type 2 diabetes presents with a painless, non-healing ulcer on the plantar aspect of his right foot for 3 weeks. ABI is 0.95, HbA1c is 10.2%, and the wound base is pink with no purulence. Which is the most appropriate next step?
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A
Initiate IV antibiotics and admit for debridement
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B
Optimize glycemic control and begin offloading with a total contact cast
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C
Refer for immediate vascular surgery consultation
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D
Apply a moisture-retentive dressing and recheck in 4 weeks