A 28-year-old woman presents with amenorrhea, galactorrhea, and a serum prolactin of 120 ng/mL. MRI shows a 12 mm pituitary lesion. What is the first-line treatment?
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A
Transsphenoidal surgery
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B
Radiation therapy
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C
Dopamine agonist (cabergoline)
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D
Bromocriptine + surgery combination