MD Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield MD facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

280 questions
480 min time limit
75% to pass
  1. Podocyte injury leading to foot process effacement is the hallmark of which glomerular disease? Minimal change disease
  2. Which of the following best describes a region of dead cardiac tissue? An infarct
  3. Which tumor lysis syndrome lab abnormality can directly cause fatal cardiac arrhythmias? Hyperkalemia
  4. A newborn is found to have bilateral renal agenesis, oligohydramnios, pulmonary hypoplasia, and limb deformities. What syndrome is this? Potter sequence
  5. Which feature best distinguishes a Todd's paralysis from an acute ischemic stroke? Gradual resolution over minutes to hours after a seizure
  6. A patient with type 2 diabetes is started on metformin. Which mechanism best explains its glucose-lowering effect? Inhibits hepatic gluconeogenesis via AMPK activation
  7. A 45-year-old woman presents with episodic flushing, diarrhea, and wheezing. Urine 5-HIAA levels are markedly elevated. What is the most likely diagnosis? Carcinoid syndrome
  8. A 40-year-old man presents with symmetric proximal muscle weakness, elevated CK, and a heliotrope rash around the eyes. What is the most likely diagnosis? Dermatomyositis
  9. What is the most common cause of primary postpartum hemorrhage (PPH)? Uterine atony
  10. 'Osteoporosis' involves which combining form meaning bone? Osteo-
  11. Which of the following is the most appropriate screening test for colorectal cancer in an average-risk 45-year-old? Colonoscopy every 10 years
  12. A 4-year-old girl has fever, rash, uveitis, and arthritis affecting fewer than 5 joints. ANA is positive. What is the greatest long-term ocular risk? Chronic anterior uveitis leading to band keratopathy and blindness
  13. The suffix '-algia' means: Pain
  14. Which finding on colonoscopy is most characteristic of Crohn's disease compared to ulcerative colitis? Skip lesions with cobblestoning
  15. Eclampsia differs from preeclampsia by the additional presence of: New-onset grand mal seizures
  16. Pulsus paradoxus (>10 mmHg fall in SBP with inspiration) is caused by which mechanism in cardiac tamponade? Exaggerated interventricular dependence as RV filling compromises LV filling
  17. Which ultraviolet radiation type is most strongly associated with melanoma development? UVA (320-400 nm)
  18. A patient on broad-spectrum antibiotics develops profuse watery diarrhea. Stool toxin assay is positive for toxin B. Which antibiotic is first-line treatment? Vancomycin (oral)
  19. Seborrheic dermatitis preferentially affects which body regions? Scalp, face, and anterior chest
  20. Which investigation is most specific for diagnosing herpes simplex encephalitis? CSF HSV PCR
  21. What does 'bilateral' mean? Both sides
  22. Which of the following expressions describes the restriction of comfortable breathing to upright postures? Orthopnea
  23. Which ventilator setting change is most appropriate for a patient with ARDS who develops worsening hypoxemia despite FiO2 of 0.6 and PEEP of 10 cmH2O? Increase PEEP to 14-16 cmH2O
  24. A patient with newly diagnosed hypothyroidism is started on levothyroxine. When should TSH be rechecked to assess adequacy of dosing? After 4–6 weeks
  25. Which of the following is the fundamental pathogenic mechanism underlying Myasthenia Gravis? Antibody-mediated destruction of postsynaptic acetylcholine receptors
  26. Which of the following describes a white blood cell count that is abnormally low? Leukopenia
  27. A 55-year-old woman with known cirrhosis presents with confusion, asterixis, and elevated ammonia. What precipitant should be ruled out first? Gastrointestinal bleeding
  28. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is most commonly caused by: Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis
  29. Which spinal canal segment will exhibit secondary curves with a concavity that is reversed? Cervical
  30. Which mechanism best explains why metformin is the preferred first-line agent for type 2 diabetes in most patients? Decreases hepatic glucose production and improves insulin sensitivity
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