MD Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield MD facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. Which of the following best describes a region of dead cardiac tissue? → An infarct
2. What is the most common cause of primary postpartum hemorrhage (PPH)? → Uterine atony
3. Eclampsia differs from preeclampsia by the additional presence of: → New-onset grand mal seizures
4. Which ultraviolet radiation type is most strongly associated with melanoma development? → UVA (320-400 nm)
5. Seborrheic dermatitis preferentially affects which body regions? → Scalp, face, and anterior chest
6. Which of the following expressions describes the restriction of comfortable breathing to upright postures? → Orthopnea
7. Which of the following is the fundamental pathogenic mechanism underlying Myasthenia Gravis? → Antibody-mediated destruction of postsynaptic acetylcholine receptors
8. Which of the following describes a white blood cell count that is abnormally low? → Leukopenia
9. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is most commonly caused by: → Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis
10. Which spinal canal segment will exhibit secondary curves with a concavity that is reversed? → Cervical
11. Concerned with by the C terminal end of the androgen receptor are: → Ligand binding
12. First-line treatment for PCOS with irregular menses when pregnancy is NOT desired is: → Combined oral contraceptive pills
13. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is most clearly indicated for which patient? → A pregnant woman with severe, treatment-resistant depression and active suicidal ideation
14. Which antibiotic is first-line treatment for uncomplicated cellulitis in a non-penicillin-allergic patient? → Cephalexin
15. Which initial test is most sensitive for diagnosing ectopic pregnancy? → Serum quantitative beta-hCG
16. Lichen planus is classically described by the '6 P's.' Which set correctly identifies them? → Pruritic, Purple, Polygonal, Planar, Papules, Plaques
17. Which topical agent is considered first-line for mild-to-moderate acne vulgaris? → Benzoyl peroxide
18. Stevens-Johnson Syndrome (SJS) is most commonly triggered by: → Drug reactions
19. Tinea versicolor (pityriasis versicolor) is caused by which organism? → Malassezia furfur
20. Which of the following histopathological findings is most characteristic of Crohn's disease and helps differentiate it from ulcerative colitis? → Non-caseating granulomas
21. Which Pap smear result in a woman over 25 requires immediate colposcopy? → HSIL (high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion)
22. The ABCDE criteria for melanoma screening stands for: → Asymmetry, Border, Color, Diameter, Evolution
23. A patient with Graves' disease is started on methimazole. Which of the following best describes the primary mechanism of action of this thionamide medication? → It inhibits the thyroid peroxidase enzyme, blocking the organification of iodine.
24. Which skin finding is pathognomonic for early Lyme disease? → Erythema migrans
25. Which of the following is a required DSM-5 criterion for a diagnosis of Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)? → Symptoms must be present for at least 1 month
26. Which of the following best describes the overall meaning of "corpus"? → Body
27. What is the most common type of skin cancer in the United States? → Basal cell carcinoma
28. False regarding the expression of Eukaryotic genes in the cytosol is: → N formyl methionine tRNA will be the first t-RNA to come into action
29. The Nikolsky sign (skin separation with lateral pressure) is positive in which condition? → Pemphigus vulgaris
30. A patient presents with malar rash, joint pain, and positive ANA. The most likely diagnosis is: → Systemic lupus erythematosus