EMD Prioritization and Dispatch 3 — Questions and Answers
Question 1: A caller reports a 60-year-old female with sudden severe headache she describes as 'the worst of her life.' Which EMD chief complaint protocol should be used?
- Headache/Back Pain/Neck Pain (Correct answer)
- Unconscious/Fainting
- Stroke/CVA
- Seizure
Correct answer: Headache/Back Pain/Neck Pain
A sudden severe headache is interrogated under Protocol 18 (Headache/Back Pain/Neck Pain), though stroke protocol may also apply depending on additional symptoms.
Question 2: Under MPDS, when a patient is reported as 'not alert,' what is the correct next step for the dispatcher?
- Immediately transfer to a supervisor
- Ask about medications and past medical history
- Send a first responder and continue protocol questioning (Correct answer)
- Wait for the patient to regain consciousness before continuing
Correct answer: Send a first responder and continue protocol questioning
An 'not alert' finding triggers an immediate high-priority dispatch while the dispatcher continues gathering information through the protocol.
Question 3: Which of the following is a Charlie-level determinant for the Breathing Problems protocol in MPDS?
- Breathing normally (≥ 8 years)
- Unknown status (3rd party caller)
- Abnormal breathing (Correct answer)
- Ineffective breathing
Correct answer: Abnormal breathing
Abnormal breathing that does not meet the highest Delta threshold is typically coded at Charlie level in the Breathing Problems protocol.
Question 4: A caller reports a 30-year-old male who was in a motor vehicle collision but is walking around and refusing transport. Which MPDS response is most appropriate?
- Cancel all responding units immediately
- Downgrade to Alpha and advise caller to drive patient to ED
- Continue with the appropriate trauma protocol to determine the correct determinant (Correct answer)
- Assign Delta automatically for all MVCs
Correct answer: Continue with the appropriate trauma protocol to determine the correct determinant
The dispatcher must follow the trauma protocol completely; the patient's ambulatory status is one data point but does not override full protocol adherence.
Question 5: In the MPDS stroke protocol, which symptom combination is considered a high-priority finding?
- Mild confusion with normal facial symmetry
- Facial droop, arm weakness, and speech difficulty (Correct answer)
- Dizziness with nausea and vomiting only
- Headache with neck stiffness in a patient under 30
Correct answer: Facial droop, arm weakness, and speech difficulty
Facial droop, arm weakness, and speech difficulty correspond to the FAST stroke recognition tool and trigger a high-priority stroke response.
Question 6: When a caller reports that a patient 'might be' having a seizure but cannot confirm, the dispatcher should:
- Disregard the call until a witness confirms seizure activity
- Select the protocol that matches the highest-risk interpretation of the chief complaint (Correct answer)
- Code it as a psychiatric emergency
- Request video verification before dispatching
Correct answer: Select the protocol that matches the highest-risk interpretation of the chief complaint
EMD protocol directs dispatchers to code ambiguous situations to the highest reasonable priority until more information is available.
Question 7: Which MPDS protocol is used when a caller reports a patient who 'just doesn't look right' with no specific complaint identified?
- Unknown Problem (Protocol 32) (Correct answer)
- General Illness (Protocol 26)
- Unconscious/Fainting (Protocol 31)
- Sick Person (Protocol 26)
Correct answer: Unknown Problem (Protocol 32)
Protocol 32 (Unknown Problem/Person Down) is designed for calls where the chief complaint cannot be clearly identified.
A caller reports a 60-year-old female with sudden severe headache she describes as 'the worst of her life.' Which EMD chief complaint protocol should be used?