EMD Certification Exam (IAED/NAED) — Questions and Answers

Question 1: A caller reports 'someone was shot in the leg and is bleeding a lot.' Which protocol takes priority?

Traumatic Injury
Stab/Gunshot/Penetrating Trauma (Correct answer)
Hemorrhage/Lacerations
Falls

Correct answer: Stab/Gunshot/Penetrating Trauma

Gunshot wounds are addressed by the Stab/Gunshot/Penetrating Trauma protocol, which has specific safety and hemorrhage control instructions.

Question 2: Which of the following is the best example of an open-ended question in caller interrogation?

"Did he fall from a height of more than 10 feet?"
"Okay, tell me exactly what happened." (Correct answer)
"Is he conscious?"
"Is the bleeding spurting or oozing?"

Correct answer: "Okay, tell me exactly what happened."

"Okay, tell me exactly what happened" is an open-ended question because it encourages the caller to provide a narrative and detailed information in their own words, rather than a simple 'yes' or 'no' answer. This allows the EMD to gather a more complete picture of the situation.

Question 3: Which of the following is an example of a 'determinant modifier' in MPDS?

The dispatch center's geographic service zone
The estimated time of arrival of the first unit
The unit number assigned to the call
A letter suffix such as 'E' for patient not alert (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A letter suffix such as 'E' for patient not alert

Determinant modifiers (letter suffixes like C, D, E) refine the base protocol code to reflect specific patient status details such as consciousness level.

Question 4: A caller states their spouse has been burned by boiling water on the chest and abdomen. The patient is awake and in severe pain. After dispatching the appropriate response, what is the MOST appropriate Post-Dispatch Instruction (PDI) for the EMD to provide?

Apply butter or ointment to soothe the pain.
Apply ice packs directly to the burned area.
Have the patient drink plenty of cold water immediately.
Cover the burn with a clean, dry dressing or sheet. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Cover the burn with a clean, dry dressing or sheet.

For significant thermal burns, the priority after stopping the burning process is to protect the patient from infection and hypothermia. Covering the burn with a clean, dry dressing or sheet achieves this. Applying ice, ointments, or butter is contraindicated and can worsen the injury.

Question 5: A caller reports a 3-year-old child who is choking and is now limp and unresponsive. The dispatcher should instruct the caller to begin:

Finger sweeps to remove the object then give two breaths
Five back blows only and recheck
Abdominal thrusts in sets of five
CPR, beginning with 30 chest compressions while looking for the object before giving breaths (Correct answer)

Correct answer: CPR, beginning with 30 chest compressions while looking for the object before giving breaths

When a choking child becomes unresponsive, begin CPR starting with compressions and look in the mouth for the object before each breath cycle — do not perform blind finger sweeps.

Question 6: Which element is NOT required to prove negligence against an EMD?

The breach caused damages
The dispatcher intended to cause harm (Correct answer)
A duty to act existed
The dispatcher breached their duty

Correct answer: The dispatcher intended to cause harm

Negligence does not require intent; it only requires proof of duty, breach, causation, and damages — intent is an element of intentional torts, not negligence.

Question 7: What is the primary purpose of 'calibration sessions' among EMD QA reviewers?

To ensure consistent and uniform scoring standards across all reviewers (Correct answer)
To practice call-taking skills using dispatch simulation software
To update the CAD system with newly released MPDS protocol codes
To review annual budget allocations for dispatcher training programs

Correct answer: To ensure consistent and uniform scoring standards across all reviewers

Calibration aligns reviewers on how to score specific protocol situations, reducing inter-rater variability and ensuring fair, consistent evaluations.

Question 8: In MPDS Protocol 11 (Choking), an adult patient who can speak in full sentences should be classified as:

Complete airway obstruction requiring immediate Heimlich maneuver instructions
Partial airway obstruction — monitor and send appropriate response (Correct answer)
Full cardiac arrest — begin CPR instructions
Anaphylaxis — ask about allergen exposure

Correct answer: Partial airway obstruction — monitor and send appropriate response

The ability to speak indicates partial obstruction with air movement; complete obstruction presents with inability to speak, cough, or breathe.

Question 9: When instructing an untrained bystander in CPR, the dispatcher should prioritize which component above all others?

Rescue breathing technique
Correct patient positioning
Chest compression technique (Correct answer)
Accurate pulse check

Correct answer: Chest compression technique

Compressions-only CPR is easier for untrained rescuers to perform correctly and provides the most immediate benefit, especially in cardiac arrest from a cardiac cause.

Question 10: Which MPDS protocol is typically used for pregnancy and childbirth emergency calls?

Protocol 24 (Pregnancy/Childbirth/OB) (Correct answer)
Protocol 7 (Burns)
Protocol 9 (Chest Pain)
Protocol 12 (Convulsions/Fitting)

Correct answer: Protocol 24 (Pregnancy/Childbirth/OB)

MPDS Protocol 24 specifically covers pregnancy and childbirth emergencies, including imminent delivery situations.

Question 11: When a caller cannot identify a single chief complaint and gives multiple unrelated symptoms, the EMD should:

Transfer the call to a supervisor immediately
Ask clarifying questions until one complaint is clearly dominant (Correct answer)
Select the protocol for the most recently mentioned symptom
Use the Sick Person protocol as a catch-all

Correct answer: Ask clarifying questions until one complaint is clearly dominant

The EMD must ask additional questions to identify the most serious or dominant chief complaint before protocol selection.

Question 12: What is the 'postictal state' that EMD dispatchers may encounter during seizure calls?

The prodromal aura that occurs before a seizure begins
The period of confusion, drowsiness, or weakness immediately after a seizure ends (Correct answer)
Permanent neurological deficit after status epilepticus
The period of increased seizure activity just before a seizure ends

Correct answer: The period of confusion, drowsiness, or weakness immediately after a seizure ends

The postictal state is the period immediately following a seizure during which the patient may be confused, drowsy, or temporarily weak, which can be mistaken for continued unconsciousness or a new emergency.

Question 13: Which MPDS priority level is typically associated with a lights-and-siren BLS response?

Omega
Alpha
Echo
Bravo (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Bravo

Bravo (B) determinants indicate a moderate-priority call that typically warrants a lights-and-siren BLS response.

Question 14: Which of the following best describes 'standard of care' as it applies to EMD liability?

The level of care that a reasonable, similarly trained EMD would provide under the same circumstances (Correct answer)
The maximum response time allowed under state law
The number of calls an EMD can handle per hour
The minimum number of dispatchers required per shift

Correct answer: The level of care that a reasonable, similarly trained EMD would provide under the same circumstances

Standard of care is the benchmark of how a competent EMD with similar training would perform, and deviating from it is the basis for a negligence claim.

Question 15: When the caller states 'she just stopped breathing,' the EMD's immediate action before any Key Question is to:

Confirm the address and begin the Cardiac Arrest protocol (Correct answer)
Transfer to medical control
Send the nearest unit and wait for their report
Ask if the patient has a DNR on file

Correct answer: Confirm the address and begin the Cardiac Arrest protocol

Stopped breathing is treated as a potential cardiac arrest; confirming the address and initiating the Cardiac Arrest protocol is the immediate priority.

Question 16: A caller reports an elderly woman who slipped on ice and cannot get up. She is alert but says her hip 'popped.' What dispatch priority is MOST appropriate?

Cancel the call; patient is alert
Police only — public assist
Non-emergency transport only
Emergency response — suspected hip fracture in elderly patient (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Emergency response — suspected hip fracture in elderly patient

A suspected hip fracture in an elderly patient requires emergency response due to risk of blood loss, immobility, and rapid deterioration.

Question 17: During a respiratory distress call, the caller reports that the patient used their rescue inhaler twice with no improvement. The EMD dispatcher should:

Instruct the caller to give the patient an antihistamine instead
Tell the caller the medication needs 30 minutes to work
Upgrade the response priority based on failed bronchodilator response (Correct answer)
Advise the caller to have the patient use the inhaler a third time immediately

Correct answer: Upgrade the response priority based on failed bronchodilator response

Failed response to bronchodilator therapy indicates potentially severe bronchospasm or an alternative diagnosis requiring upgraded EMS response.

Question 18: In neurological emergencies, what is the significance of unequal pupils (anisocoria) reported by a caller during interrogation?

It is only significant in patients under age 40
It indicates the patient is not truly unconscious
It is a normal finding requiring no special concern
It may indicate increased intracranial pressure or brainstem herniation (Correct answer)

Correct answer: It may indicate increased intracranial pressure or brainstem herniation

Unequal pupils in the context of altered mental status or trauma can indicate life-threatening increased intracranial pressure or brainstem herniation, warranting highest-priority dispatch.

Question 19: What should the EMD dispatcher do if a caller states that a seizing patient 'has a DNR order'?

Request the caller fax the DNR before units are dispatched
Downgrade to a non-emergency response priority
Cancel the emergency response immediately
Continue the full response, as a DNR does not apply to a treatable emergency like a seizure (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Continue the full response, as a DNR does not apply to a treatable emergency like a seizure

A DNR order applies specifically to resuscitation during cardiac arrest; a seizure is a potentially treatable emergency to which a DNR does not apply, so the full dispatch response must continue.

Question 20: What term describes the emotional toll experienced by dispatchers who repeatedly handle traumatic emergency calls?

Compassion fatigue (Correct answer)
Protocol burnout
Shift fatigue
Dispatch overload

Correct answer: Compassion fatigue

Compassion fatigue is a recognized occupational hazard for dispatchers caused by sustained exposure to callers' traumatic and distressing situations.

Question 21: An EMD dispatcher is coaching CPR on a patient with a tracheostomy. How should compression instructions differ?

Only ALS providers can perform CPR on tracheostomy patients
Compressions are performed identically; rescue breaths go into the stoma, not the mouth (Correct answer)
The compression site moves to the upper chest near the tracheostomy
Compressions are contraindicated in tracheostomy patients

Correct answer: Compressions are performed identically; rescue breaths go into the stoma, not the mouth

Chest compressions are performed identically, but rescue breathing for tracheostomy patients is delivered through the stoma rather than the mouth.

Question 22: During a quality assurance case review, the practice of 'blinding' the reviewer primarily serves what purpose?

To remove all patient-identifying information to comply with HIPAA regulations.
To conceal the identity of the EMD from the quality assurance reviewer.
To review the EMD's performance without knowledge of the patient's ultimate clinical outcome. (Correct answer)
To prevent the EMD from knowing which of their calls are being selected for review.

Correct answer: To review the EMD's performance without knowledge of the patient's ultimate clinical outcome.

Blinding in this context is designed to prevent 'outcome bias.' If a reviewer knows the patient had a negative outcome, they may subconsciously scrutinize the call more harshly. Conversely, knowing of a positive outcome might lead them to overlook minor deviations. Blinding the reviewer to the outcome ensures the EMD's performance is judged solely on their adherence to the established process and protocol.

Question 23: Which factor most affects protocol selection when handling a pediatric emergency call?

The parent's tone of voice
The time of day the call occurs
The child's age and approximate weight (Correct answer)
The child's school grade

Correct answer: The child's age and approximate weight

A child's age and approximate weight determine which pediatric protocols and instructions are appropriate for that patient.

Question 24: A caller reports a motor vehicle collision. After dispatching the appropriate fire and EMS units, the EMD begins asking a series of scripted questions about the number of patients, entrapment, and visible hazards. This structured questioning is a key component of:

A customer service satisfaction survey.
Adherence to a medically-approved dispatch protocol. (Correct answer)
The EMD's personal curiosity about the incident.
A quality assurance case review.

Correct answer: Adherence to a medically-approved dispatch protocol.

EMDs are required to follow systematized, medically-approved protocols. These protocols include specific interrogation questions designed to gather critical information safely and efficiently, determine the appropriate response level, and ensure responder safety. Deviating from these protocols can compromise patient care and increase liability.

Question 25: A caller reports that a patient was shocked by a downed power line and is now unconscious in the backyard. The dispatcher's first instruction should be:

Tell the caller to drag the patient away from the line before starting CPR
Instruct the caller NOT to touch the patient until the scene is confirmed safe (Correct answer)
Direct the caller to begin CPR immediately
Advise the caller to pour water on the line to ground it

Correct answer: Instruct the caller NOT to touch the patient until the scene is confirmed safe

Scene safety is paramount — touching a patient in contact with live electricity can electrocute the rescuer; the dispatcher must prevent the caller from approaching until the scene is safe.

Question 26: Which of the following is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio the dispatcher should instruct for two-rescuer adult CPR?

50:2
30:1
30:2 (Correct answer)
15:2

Correct answer: 30:2

The standard two-rescuer adult CPR ratio is 30 compressions to 2 breaths, consistent with AHA guidelines.

Question 27: In EMD quality assurance, 'protocol compliance' specifically measures whether:

Patient vital signs were accurately recorded by the dispatcher during the call
EMS responders arrived on scene within the target response time window
The dispatcher followed every required step of the approved Medical Priority Dispatch System protocol (Correct answer)
The CAD system correctly auto-populated the call type from the address lookup

Correct answer: The dispatcher followed every required step of the approved Medical Priority Dispatch System protocol

Protocol compliance is a dispatcher-performance metric focused exclusively on adherence to MPDS steps — not outcomes beyond the dispatcher's control.

Question 28: When a caller reports a patient with altered mental status (AMS), which question is LEAST useful for the EMD dispatcher?

What is the patient's favorite color? (Correct answer)
Is the patient breathing normally?
Does the patient have a history of diabetes?
Did the patient take any medications or substances?

Correct answer: What is the patient's favorite color?

During an AMS call, all questions must focus on identifying life-threatening causes; personal preference questions provide no clinically useful information.

Question 29: When providing telephone CPR instructions, the dispatcher should direct the caller to compress the adult chest at what rate?

80-100 compressions per minute
60-80 compressions per minute
120-140 compressions per minute
100-120 compressions per minute (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 100-120 compressions per minute

Current guidelines specify 100-120 chest compressions per minute for effective CPR in adults.

Question 30: Which best describes 'emotional labor' in the context of emergency dispatching?

Physical lifting required in the dispatch center environment
The mental calculation of resource allocation under pressure
The effort required to manage emotional expressions while handling distressing calls (Correct answer)
Extra overtime worked during emotionally difficult shifts

Correct answer: The effort required to manage emotional expressions while handling distressing calls

Emotional labor is the psychological effort dispatchers expend to maintain composure and professionalism while internally processing distressing caller situations.

Question 31: What is the purpose of the 'Key Question' phase in an MPDS protocol card?

To collect insurance information from the caller
To confirm the caller's callback number
To notify the receiving hospital of the incoming patient
To determine the appropriate determinant code by narrowing down the specific nature and severity of the emergency (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To determine the appropriate determinant code by narrowing down the specific nature and severity of the emergency

Key Questions are the structured interrogation steps on each MPDS card designed to gather the information needed to assign the correct determinant.

Question 32: A caller says a patient had a seizure and is now breathing but unconscious. After confirming the seizure has stopped, the dispatcher should instruct the caller to:

Give the patient water to drink when they wake up
Hold the patient's tongue to prevent swallowing
Begin CPR immediately
Place the patient in the recovery (lateral) position (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Place the patient in the recovery (lateral) position

The recovery position protects the airway from aspiration in a post-ictal patient who is breathing but unconscious.

Question 33: A caller reports a patient was struck by lightning and is now unresponsive. What is the correct EMD response regarding scene safety?

Lightning victims are safe to touch immediately after strike
Lightning victims remain electrically charged for 10 minutes
The scene may still be dangerous; advise caller to move to shelter before approaching (Correct answer)
Do not dispatch until the storm completely passes

Correct answer: The scene may still be dangerous; advise caller to move to shelter before approaching

Lightning poses an ongoing scene hazard; callers should seek shelter while remaining on the line, and responders should approach only when safe.

Question 34: A Bravo-level MPDS determinant typically requires which type of response?

No lights or siren
Lights and siren only at intersections
Potentially serious but non-life-threatening response (Correct answer)
Immediate all-available-units response

Correct answer: Potentially serious but non-life-threatening response

Bravo-level calls are serious but not immediately life-threatening, so a prompt but not necessarily code-3 response is appropriate per local protocol.

Question 35: Which action falls OUTSIDE the accepted scope of an EMD's role?

Diagnosing the patient's specific medical condition (Correct answer)
Providing CPR instructions to a bystander caller
Dispatching the appropriate level of response unit
Obtaining the caller's precise location

Correct answer: Diagnosing the patient's specific medical condition

EMDs are not licensed to diagnose medical conditions; their role is to gather information, dispatch resources, and provide pre-arrival instructions based on protocols.

Question 36: A caller consents to receiving pre-arrival medical instructions over the phone. This represents which legal concept?

Statutory authorization
Expressed consent (Correct answer)
Implied consent
Informed refusal

Correct answer: Expressed consent

When a caller verbally agrees to receive instructions, this constitutes expressed consent, meaning the caller has directly stated their agreement.

Question 37: If a caller reports the baby's head is visible and crowning, what should the EMD do immediately?

Tell the caller to push harder
Provide pre-arrival childbirth delivery instructions (Correct answer)
Ask the caller to call back when delivery is complete
Dispatch a lower-priority unit

Correct answer: Provide pre-arrival childbirth delivery instructions

Crowning indicates imminent delivery; the EMD must immediately provide pre-arrival instructions to assist with the birth.

Question 38: During a DLS call for a suspected stroke, which instruction set should the dispatcher provide to the caller?

Give the patient aspirin and have them lie down
Keep the patient calm, do not give food or water, note symptom onset time (Correct answer)
Have the patient walk slowly to test balance
Apply cold compresses to the head and elevate legs

Correct answer: Keep the patient calm, do not give food or water, note symptom onset time

For stroke patients, dispatchers instruct callers to keep the patient calm, avoid oral intake, and note the exact time symptoms began — critical for treatment decisions.

Question 39: A caller reports a man fell off a ladder. Which of the following questions is a key question designed to differentiate the severity of the trauma?

"Why was he on the ladder?"
"How far did he fall?" (Correct answer)
"What is the man's name?"
"Has he fallen before?"

Correct answer: "How far did he fall?"

In trauma calls, the mechanism of injury is a critical factor in determining the potential severity. Asking "How far did he fall?" helps the EMD differentiate between a low-level fall and a potentially life-threatening fall from a significant height, which would require a higher priority response.

Question 40: Which of the following best describes the purpose of MPDS Case Entry Protocol (Protocol 1)?

To standardize the collection of address, callback number, and chief complaint before protocol selection (Correct answer)
To determine the final determinant code for dispatch
To route calls between dispatch and field supervisors
To log quality assurance data after the call

Correct answer: To standardize the collection of address, callback number, and chief complaint before protocol selection

Protocol 1 (Case Entry) ensures consistent collection of location, callback number, and chief complaint as the universal first step for every call.

Question 41: Documentation of EMD calls is important primarily because it:

Is required only for calls that result in patient fatalities
Eliminates the need for hospital patient records
Provides a legal record and supports quality improvement processes (Correct answer)
Reduces the workload for field paramedics

Correct answer: Provides a legal record and supports quality improvement processes

Call records serve as a legal account of actions taken and are reviewed during QA/QI processes to identify training opportunities and protocol compliance.

Question 42: Which of the following best distinguishes Pre-Arrival Instructions (PAIs) from Post-Dispatch Instructions (PDIs)?

PDIs are given before dispatching units, while PAIs are given after.
PDIs are always optional for the caller to follow, whereas PAIs are mandatory.
PAIs focus on gathering patient information, while PDIs focus on providing medical treatment.
PAIs are for life-threatening emergencies like choking or cardiac arrest, while PDIs are general safety instructions for most chief complaints. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: PAIs are for life-threatening emergencies like choking or cardiac arrest, while PDIs are general safety instructions for most chief complaints.

Pre-Arrival Instructions (PAIs) are specific, scripted instructions for managing immediate, life-threatening situations such as cardiac arrest, choking, and childbirth before responders arrive. Post-Dispatch Instructions (PDIs) are more general, cautionary instructions given after dispatch for a wide range of chief complaints to ensure scene safety and provide basic care until help arrives.

Question 43: A caller describes a patient with a large laceration that is 'spurting bright red blood' from the upper thigh. Which pre-arrival instruction is MOST appropriate?

Apply a cold compress and elevate the leg
Instruct caller to apply a tourniquet 2 inches above the wound (Correct answer)
Have the caller keep the patient talking and walking
Apply firm direct pressure immediately

Correct answer: Instruct caller to apply a tourniquet 2 inches above the wound

Spurting bright red blood from the thigh indicates arterial hemorrhage; a tourniquet is the recommended intervention for extremity arterial bleeding.

Question 44: When questioning a caller about chest pain, the EMD asks about 'associated symptoms.' Which combination is most consistent with a cardiac event?

Fever, productive cough, and pleuritic pain
Nausea, diaphoresis, and shortness of breath (Correct answer)
Headache, visual changes, and neck stiffness
Abdominal cramping, diarrhea, and back pain

Correct answer: Nausea, diaphoresis, and shortness of breath

Nausea, diaphoresis (sweating), and dyspnea are classic autonomic and sympathetic responses associated with acute coronary syndrome.

Question 45: While using Protocol 26: Sick Person, the EMD asks if the patient has any pain. The caller replies, 'Yes, he's saying his head is pounding.' According to MPDS rules, what is the correct action for the EMD to take?

Remain on Protocol 26 and continue interrogation (Correct answer)
Shunt to Protocol 18: Headache
Place the caller on hold and consult with a supervisor
Immediately dispatch as a stroke and provide pre-arrival instructions

Correct answer: Remain on Protocol 26 and continue interrogation

MPDS rules for Protocol 26 generally direct the EMD to remain on the protocol when a non-priority symptom like a headache is 'discovered' during questioning. Shunting is typically reserved for the discovery of true priority symptoms, such as chest pain. Continuing through the Protocol 26 questions ensures all other potential priority symptoms are properly ruled out.

Question 46: An EMD dispatcher receives a call about a patient on beta-blocker medication having chest pain with a heart rate of 48. This heart rate is best described as:

Tachycardia requiring immediate defibrillation
Pulseless electrical activity
Bradycardia that may be medication-related (Correct answer)
Normal sinus rhythm for an adult at rest

Correct answer: Bradycardia that may be medication-related

Beta-blockers reduce heart rate, and a rate of 48 bpm represents bradycardia that may be a known pharmacological effect.

Question 47: During a trauma call, the caller states the patient is breathing very fast (about 30 breaths per minute) after being ejected from a vehicle. What condition does this finding suggest?

Mild anxiety reaction
Tension pneumothorax or internal hemorrhage (Correct answer)
Hypoglycemia
Carbon monoxide poisoning

Correct answer: Tension pneumothorax or internal hemorrhage

Tachypnea after high-energy trauma may signal pneumothorax, hemothorax, or hemorrhagic shock.

Question 48: What is the correct technique for delivering rescue breaths to an infant during CPR?

Use a paper bag to create an airflow seal
Cover only the infant's nose with your mouth
Cover both the infant's mouth and nose with your mouth (Correct answer)
Cover only the infant's mouth with your mouth

Correct answer: Cover both the infant's mouth and nose with your mouth

Due to an infant's small facial size, rescuers cover both the mouth and nose with their mouth to deliver effective rescue breaths.

Question 49: What is the primary goal of a Post-Dispatch Instruction (PDI) in EMD?

Record the determinant code in the CAD system
Confirm the ambulance route to the scene
Notify the receiving hospital of the incoming patient
Provide safety or preparatory instructions to the caller after units are dispatched (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Provide safety or preparatory instructions to the caller after units are dispatched

PDIs are instructions given after dispatch, such as unlocking the door or meeting the crew outside, to help the response go smoothly.

Question 50: An EMD's responsibility in resource allocation primarily involves:

Matching the appropriate level of response to the nature of the emergency (Correct answer)
Allowing callers to choose which units respond to their call
Personally responding to emergencies when units are unavailable
Dispatching maximum resources to every call regardless of severity

Correct answer: Matching the appropriate level of response to the nature of the emergency

EMDs use caller information and priority dispatch protocols to send the right type and number of resources, preventing both under- and over-response.

Question 51: How should a dispatcher adjust interrogation when questioning a child caller about an adult patient?

Use the same adult-level vocabulary to maintain professionalism
Terminate the call and request an adult callback
Transfer the call immediately to a supervisor
Use simple, age-appropriate language and ask one question at a time (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Use simple, age-appropriate language and ask one question at a time

Child callers require simple, concrete language and single questions at a time to gather accurate information without causing additional panic.

Question 52: In MPDS, what is the purpose of asking 'Tell me exactly what happened'?

To complete the patient's full medical history before dispatching units
To stall the caller until a supervisor becomes available
To identify the chief complaint so the correct protocol can be selected (Correct answer)
To determine whether to automatically upgrade the response level

Correct answer: To identify the chief complaint so the correct protocol can be selected

This open-ended question elicits the chief complaint from the caller, which is essential for selecting the correct MPDS protocol.

Question 53: When a caller reports the patient 'might be breathing,' how should the EMD dispatcher treat this response?

Treat it as 'not breathing' until confirmed otherwise (Correct answer)
Assume breathing is normal and proceed
Ask the caller to check again and call back
Document it and wait for units to arrive

Correct answer: Treat it as 'not breathing' until confirmed otherwise

Ambiguous breathing status must be treated as 'not breathing' to ensure the highest level of response and trigger pre-arrival CPR instructions if needed.

EMD Certification Exam (IAED/NAED)

The Emergency Medical Dispatch (EMD) certification exam, administered by the International Academies of Emergency Dispatch (IAED), tests knowledge of medical priority dispatch protocols, caller interrogation techniques, and dispatch life support instructions.

Questions

90 min

Time Limit

80%

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