EMD Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield EMD facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. EMDs are required to use approved medical dispatch protocols primarily because: → They ensure consistent, evidence-based care and help reduce liability
2. Which of the following is a Charlie-level determinant for the Breathing Problems protocol in MPDS? → Abnormal breathing
3. A 52 year old male reports that he fell 2 weeks ago and has been having back pain for the last 2 hours, choose the most correct chief complaint type. → 5 Back Pains
4. When a caller reports that a patient 'might be' having a seizure but cannot confirm, the dispatcher should: → Select the protocol that matches the highest-risk interpretation of the chief complaint
5. Which scenario would lead an EMD to use the Choking protocol rather than the Breathing Problems protocol? → Patient inhaled a foreign object and cannot speak
6. A caller reports someone was stabbed in the abdomen. The EMD should select which protocol? → Stab/Gunshot/Penetrating Trauma
7. A caller reports a diabetic patient who 'is shaking and won't respond to questions.' The BEST protocol selection is: → Diabetic Problems
8. In MPDS, what is the purpose of asking 'Tell me exactly what happened'? → To identify the chief complaint so the correct protocol can be selected
9. A caller reports a patient with an open chest wound making a 'sucking' sound with each breath. What pre-arrival instruction is MOST appropriate? → Instruct caller to cover the wound with a gloved hand or occlusive material
10. Which question best helps a dispatcher determine whether a fall patient may have a spinal injury? → From what height did the patient fall and is there neck or back pain?
11. For a conscious pediatric choking victim, what instructions should the EMD provide? → Give age-appropriate back blows and abdominal thrusts per protocol
12. In the MPDS cardiac arrest protocol, after positioning the patient, what compression rate should the EMD instruct the bystander to perform? → 100–120 compressions per minute
13. In MPDS quality review, a 'sentinel event' most commonly refers to: → A significant adverse event that requires formal case review and analysis
14. During a telephone-assisted CPR call, the caller says the patient 'took a breath.' The EMD should instruct the caller to: → Continue compressions unless the patient is fully conscious and breathing normally
15. When a caller cannot determine if a patient is breathing, the EMD should instruct them to look for all of the following EXCEPT: → Capillary refill time greater than 2 seconds
16. A caller reports a 45-year-old male who is unresponsive and not breathing. Which MPDS determinant suffix would most likely apply? → D – Delta
17. In the MPDS determinant code '9-D-2,' what does the letter 'D' represent? → The Delta priority level
18. A caller describes a patient who is 'having trouble walking and one side of his face is drooping.' The EMD should select: → Stroke (CVA)
19. Which question during caller interrogation best helps distinguish a stroke from a hypoglycemic emergency? → Has the patient eaten recently or taken insulin?
20. When the patient is also the caller (self-reporting), how should interrogation be modified? → Use simpler language and ask questions in a way that does not increase patient panic
21. In an EMD center, which role is primarily responsible for analyzing QA data trends and recommending protocol improvements? → Quality Improvement Coordinator
22. A caller reports a 45-year-old male with chest pain. Which follow-up question has the highest dispatch priority? → Is he conscious and breathing normally?
23. How many numbered protocols are included in the standard MPDS? → 33
24. What is 'respondeat superior' and how does it apply to EMD centers? → A doctrine making employers liable for employees' actions within their scope of employment
25. Which action best protects an EMD center from liability related to call documentation? → Maintaining detailed, accurate, and timely call records
26. A 34 yr old female calls and reports that she is having pain in her stomach and has a fever, choose the most correct chief complaint. → 1 Abdominal Pain
27. Which MPDS protocol is typically used for pregnancy and childbirth emergency calls? → Protocol 24 (Pregnancy/Childbirth/OB)
28. What is the primary purpose of 'calibration sessions' among EMD QA reviewers? → To ensure consistent and uniform scoring standards across all reviewers
29. When a caller's chief complaint does not clearly match any specific MPDS protocol, which protocol should be selected? → Protocol 32 (Unknown Problem)
30. A caller says a child fell from a tree and is crying. Which chief complaint protocol is most appropriate? → Falls