EMD Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield EMD facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. EMDs are required to use approved medical dispatch protocols primarily because: → They ensure consistent, evidence-based care and help reduce liability
2. During a DLS call, a caller becomes panicked and begins yelling, making it hard to provide instructions. The dispatcher should: → Speak in a calm, firm, and controlled tone to redirect the caller's focus
3. During a DLS call, the caller states the patient has started breathing normally after CPR was performed. The dispatcher should instruct the caller to: → Place the patient in the recovery position and continue to monitor breathing
4. How should a QA reviewer handle a call where the dispatcher deviated from protocol due to an unusual and unanticipated caller situation? → Document the deviation and escalate to dispatch leadership for protocol review
5. Which of the following is a Charlie-level determinant for the Breathing Problems protocol in MPDS? → Abnormal breathing
6. A 52 year old male reports that he fell 2 weeks ago and has been having back pain for the last 2 hours, choose the most correct chief complaint type. → 5 Back Pains
7. Regarding patient confidentiality, EMDs must: → Protect patient health information in accordance with HIPAA regulations
8. When a caller reports that a patient 'might be' having a seizure but cannot confirm, the dispatcher should: → Select the protocol that matches the highest-risk interpretation of the chief complaint
9. A caller reports a patient with asthma who has silence on auscultation (no wheeze). In the context of a severe asthma attack, this finding indicates: → Such severe obstruction that air movement is nearly absent — a critical finding
10. Which scenario would lead an EMD to use the Choking protocol rather than the Breathing Problems protocol? → Patient inhaled a foreign object and cannot speak
11. A caller reports someone was stabbed in the abdomen. The EMD should select which protocol? → Stab/Gunshot/Penetrating Trauma
12. Which of the following is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio the dispatcher should instruct for two-rescuer adult CPR? → 30:2
13. A caller reports a diabetic patient who 'is shaking and won't respond to questions.' The BEST protocol selection is: → Diabetic Problems
14. In MPDS, what is the purpose of asking 'Tell me exactly what happened'? → To identify the chief complaint so the correct protocol can be selected
15. A caller reports a patient with an open chest wound making a 'sucking' sound with each breath. What pre-arrival instruction is MOST appropriate? → Instruct caller to cover the wound with a gloved hand or occlusive material
16. Which question best helps a dispatcher determine whether a fall patient may have a spinal injury? → From what height did the patient fall and is there neck or back pain?
17. For a conscious pediatric choking victim, what instructions should the EMD provide? → Give age-appropriate back blows and abdominal thrusts per protocol
18. In the MPDS cardiac arrest protocol, after positioning the patient, what compression rate should the EMD instruct the bystander to perform? → 100–120 compressions per minute
19. In MPDS quality review, a 'sentinel event' most commonly refers to: → A significant adverse event that requires formal case review and analysis
20. During a telephone-assisted CPR call, the caller says the patient 'took a breath.' The EMD should instruct the caller to: → Continue compressions unless the patient is fully conscious and breathing normally
21. When coaching compressions over the phone, the dispatcher should instruct the caller to allow the chest to: → Fully recoil between each compression
22. When a caller cannot determine if a patient is breathing, the EMD should instruct them to look for all of the following EXCEPT: → Capillary refill time greater than 2 seconds
23. In cardiac arrest call QA, which dispatcher time interval is considered the most critical performance indicator? → Time from call receipt to delivery of the first CPR instruction
24. A caller reports a 45-year-old male who is unresponsive and not breathing. Which MPDS determinant suffix would most likely apply? → D – Delta
25. In the MPDS determinant code '9-D-2,' what does the letter 'D' represent? → The Delta priority level
26. A caller describes a patient who is 'having trouble walking and one side of his face is drooping.' The EMD should select: → Stroke (CVA)
27. Which question during caller interrogation best helps distinguish a stroke from a hypoglycemic emergency? → Has the patient eaten recently or taken insulin?
28. When the patient is also the caller (self-reporting), how should interrogation be modified? → Use simpler language and ask questions in a way that does not increase patient panic
29. In an EMD center, which role is primarily responsible for analyzing QA data trends and recommending protocol improvements? → Quality Improvement Coordinator
30. Which of the following best describes the purpose of telecommunicator CPR (T-CPR) training within the EMD curriculum? → To train dispatchers to coach bystanders through CPR via phone until EMS arrives