SPEX Dermatology 2

Question 1

Tinea versicolor, characterized by hypo- or hyperpigmented patches, is most commonly caused by which organism?

Accepted Answer

Malassezia furfur

Answer

Tinea versicolor is caused by Malassezia furfur (Pityrosporum ovale), a commensal yeast that overgrows in warm, humid conditions and disrupts normal skin pigmentation.

Question 2

Wickham striae—fine white lacy lines on skin lesions—are pathognomonic for which dermatological condition?

Accepted Answer

Lichen planus

Answer

Wickham striae are fine white lacy lines on lesion surfaces that serve as a characteristic diagnostic feature of lichen planus, a T-cell-mediated inflammatory condition.

Question 3

What is the first-line treatment for uncomplicated scabies in adults?

Accepted Answer

Topical permethrin 5% cream

Answer

Topical permethrin 5% cream is the first-line treatment for scabies, applied to the entire body from the neck down and left for 8-14 hours; oral ivermectin is an alternative for cases where topical treatment is impractical.

Question 4

Which subtype of melanoma carries the worst prognosis due to its rapid vertical growth phase without a preceding radial growth phase?

Accepted Answer

Nodular melanoma

Answer

Nodular melanoma has the worst prognosis because it grows vertically from the outset without a radial growth phase, resulting in greater depth of invasion at diagnosis and higher rates of metastasis.

Question 5

In the ABCDE criteria for evaluating suspicious skin lesions for melanoma, what does the 'E' stand for?

Accepted Answer

Evolution or change over time

Answer

In the ABCDE criteria (Asymmetry, Border, Color, Diameter, Evolution), 'E' stands for Evolution—any change in size, shape, color, or symptoms such as bleeding over time.

SPEX Exam Practice Test

SPEX Exam Practice Test

SPEX Dermatology 2