SPEX Exam Musculoskeletal and Orthopedics

Question 1

A 28-year-old man presents 4 hours after a forearm fracture with severe pain out of proportion to the injury, paresthesias in the hand, and a tense compartment on palpation. The most appropriate immediate management is:

Accepted Answer

Emergency fasciotomy

Answer

The clinical triad of pain out of proportion, paresthesias, and a tense compartment strongly indicates acute compartment syndrome. Fasciotomy is the definitive emergency treatment; delay causes irreversible ischemic injury (Volkmann contracture, rhabdomyolysis). Elevation and ice reduce swelling but do not relieve elevated compartment pressure. MRI and analgesia waste critical time.

Question 2

A 55-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes reports a 3-month history of bilateral hand numbness that is worse at night and relieved by shaking the hands. Physical examination reveals decreased sensation over the palmar aspect of the first three fingers. The most likely diagnosis is:

Accepted Answer

Carpal tunnel syndrome

Answer

Carpal tunnel syndrome (median nerve compression) classically presents with nocturnal numbness and paresthesias in the first 3.5 fingers relieved by wrist flicking ('flick sign'). Cubital tunnel (ulnar nerve) affects the ring and small fingers. C6 radiculopathy can mimic but typically includes neck pain and deltoid/biceps weakness. Raynaud causes color changes, not fixed sensory distribution.

Question 3

A 70-year-old woman with no prior fractures has a DEXA T-score of −2.7 at the femoral neck. She has no secondary causes of bone loss and no history of fracture. Which intervention is MOST appropriate?

Accepted Answer

Initiate bisphosphonate therapy plus calcium and vitamin D

Answer

A T-score ≤ −2.5 meets the WHO definition of osteoporosis and crosses the pharmacotherapy threshold per AACE/NOF guidelines. Bisphosphonates (e.g., alendronate) plus calcium/vitamin D are first-line. Teriparatide is reserved for severe osteoporosis or bisphosphonate failure. Calcium/D alone is insufficient at this T-score, and waiting 2 years is not appropriate given established osteoporosis.

Question 4

A 35-year-old pitcher develops anterior shoulder pain during the throwing motion. On examination, there is a positive 'empty can' test and weakness with resisted external rotation. Which structure is most likely injured?

Accepted Answer

Supraspinatus tendon

Answer

The empty can test (Jobe's test) isolates the supraspinatus by positioning the arm at 90° abduction in the scapular plane with the thumb pointing down. Weakness or pain is highly specific for supraspinatus pathology (tear or tendinopathy). The biceps long head produces Speed's test pain. Subscapularis is tested with the lift-off test. SLAP tears cause deep shoulder pain with clicking but have different provocative tests.

Question 5

A patient with acute low back pain radiating down the left leg to the foot has a positive straight-leg raise at 40°. Imaging shows L4–L5 disc herniation. After 6 weeks of conservative management, which finding would be the STRONGEST indication for urgent surgical referral?

Accepted Answer

New onset saddle anesthesia and urinary retention

Answer

Saddle anesthesia (perianal numbness) with urinary retention constitutes cauda equina syndrome—a surgical emergency requiring decompression within 24–48 hours to prevent permanent bowel/bladder dysfunction and lower-extremity paralysis. Persistent pain and functional limitations guide elective surgical timing. Bilateral Lasègue is concerning but does not mandate emergency surgery in isolation.

SPEX Exam Practice Test

SPEX Exam Practice Test

SPEX Exam Musculoskeletal and Orthopedics