SMQT Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield SMQT facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. During an entrance conference, what is the primary purpose of the surveyor's opening statement? → To explain the survey process and team composition to facility leadership
2. Which CMS document outlines the specific tasks surveyors must complete during a standard nursing home survey? → State Operations Manual (SOM)
3. When surveying medication reconciliation practices at a hospital, which patient transition is most associated with high-risk medication errors? → Admission from home to the hospital
4. A surveyor discovers that a facility failed to investigate and report an allegation of resident-to-resident abuse. The MOST appropriate action is to: → Cite deficiencies under abuse prohibition and reporting requirements
5. Under the Medicare Conditions of Participation for long-term care, how often must pharmacists conduct drug regimen reviews for residents? → At least monthly
6. An interviewer arrives at a household and finds the television on loudly in the interview room. What is the correct action? → Ask the respondent if it would be acceptable to turn off the television before beginning
7. Which of the following represents a violation of a resident's right to dignity under 42 CFR §483.10? → Staff referring to residents as 'feeders' or 'walkers' in clinical shorthand
8. When a PASRR Level II evaluation is required, which professional must conduct it? → A qualified mental health professional or intellectual disability specialist
9. How often must a nursing facility's Quality Assessment and Assurance (QAA) committee meet at a minimum? → Quarterly
10. What is the significance of the 'kitchen sink' approach in surveying, and why is it discouraged? → It means citing every minor issue observed, which dilutes focus on serious deficiencies
11. Policies and procedures for hospitals, CAHs, and LTC facilities must address subsistence needs for staff and patients. Which item is included? → Food, water, medical and pharmaceutical supplies
12. Federal regulations require that the interval between the evening meal and breakfast the next morning should not exceed: → 14 hours
13. To investigate the infrastructure's availability and site circumstances. → reconnaissance survey
14. Which MDS item set is used when a resident returns from a hospital stay under a Medicare Part A benefit? → Return from Hospital tracking record
15. A resident's MDS indicates a BIMS score of 6. How should the surveyor interpret this finding? → Severely impaired cognition
16. How often must a long-term care facility review and update its emergency preparedness program? → At least annually
17. What should an interviewer note in their case record when the physical environment during an interview was suboptimal? → Document the specific environmental conditions and any impact on the interview process
18. A resident requests that their care plan goal be changed from 'ambulate 50 feet daily' to 'remain in bed during evening hours.' The facility should: → Update the care plan to reflect the resident's preference and document any risks discussed
19. A facility fails to transmit MDS data to the CMS national repository within the required timeframe. Which consequence can a surveyor cite? → A deficiency citation under F-tag regulations governing assessments and care planning
20. According to federal regulations at 42 CFR §483.90(d), a facility's resident call system must be accessible from which specific locations? → Each resident's bed and toilet.
21. Under CMS regulations, how long does a facility have to resolve a resident's grievance after it is submitted? → Within a reasonable time frame, not to exceed 15 calendar days
22. During a survey, a resident tells a surveyor that staff skip her scheduled bath twice a week. This information is BEST classified as: → Interview data to be corroborated with observation and records
23. A resident refuses a care plan goal. The facility's correct response is to: → Document the refusal and the risks explained, then respect the resident's right to refuse
24. Under federal regulations, how frequently must a nursing facility review and revise a resident's comprehensive care plan? → Every 90 days or after a significant change
25. Which of the following is an example of an alternate energy need that hospital policies must address? → Maintaining temperatures to protect patient health and safety
26. Which regulatory tag is associated with nursing home residents' rights to be free from abuse, neglect, and exploitation? → F600
27. Which scope-and-severity levels indicate the facility is in substantial compliance despite a cited deficiency? → A, B, C
28. Which section of the MDS captures a resident's cognitive skills for daily decision-making? → Section C
29. Which federal regulation governs the Preadmission Screening and Resident Review (PASRR) program? → 42 CFR Part 441
30. Absent Immediate Jeopardy, by when must a facility's provider agreement be terminated if it still has not achieved substantial compliance? → 6 months from the last day of the survey