S-95 Exam — Questions and Answers
Question 1: In a fire involving electrical equipment, which component of the fire triangle is targeted by a CO2 fire extinguisher?
- Heat
- Fuel
- Oxygen (Correct answer)
- Water
Correct answer: Oxygen
A CO2 fire extinguisher targets the oxygen component of the fire triangle (fuel, heat, oxygen). It works by releasing a blanket of carbon dioxide gas, which is heavier than air, to displace the oxygen surrounding the fire. By reducing the oxygen concentration below the level needed for combustion, the fire is effectively suffocated and extinguished.
Question 2: A contractor performing work accidentally damages a pull station. The S-95 holder should FIRST:
- Log the damage, notify the fire alarm company, and implement a fire watch if required (Correct answer)
- Ignore it if the rest of the system is operational
- Allow the contractor to repair it with their own tools
- Submit a variance request to the NYC DOB
Correct answer: Log the damage, notify the fire alarm company, and implement a fire watch if required
Any damage to a fire alarm device must be logged, the fire alarm company must be notified for proper repair, and a fire watch implemented if required by FDNY.
Question 3: A fire alarm system supervisory signal is generated by a low air pressure switch on a dry-pipe sprinkler system when air pressure drops below the required level. What condition does this indicate?
- The air compressor has failed or there is a significant air leak in the system (Correct answer)
- The control valve has been partially closed
- A fire has been detected in the protected area
- A sprinkler head has opened and water is flowing
Correct answer: The air compressor has failed or there is a significant air leak in the system
Low air pressure in a dry-pipe system indicates either a failed compressor or a significant leak; this triggers a supervisory signal because the system's ability to function is impaired.
Question 4: Which report would you use to document a malfunction or failure of a fire alarm system component?
- Maintenance Log
- Inspection Report
- Incident Report (Correct answer)
- System Design Plan
Correct answer: Incident Report
An Incident Report is specifically designed to document unexpected events, such as malfunctions, failures, or false alarms, within a fire alarm system. It provides a formal record of what happened, when it occurred, the impact, and any immediate actions taken. This helps in tracking issues, identifying recurring problems, and informing future maintenance or system upgrades.
Question 5: A technician tests a fire alarm system using the 'walk test' mode. What is the primary purpose of this mode?
- To silence all notification appliances while testing individual initiating devices (Correct answer)
- To disable secondary power during testing
- To bypass the central station signal for 24 hours
- To automatically reset the system after each device activation
Correct answer: To silence all notification appliances while testing individual initiating devices
Walk test mode allows a single technician to activate initiating devices while silencing notification appliances so only the FACP logs each activation.
Question 6: An S-95 holder is working when the fire alarm system experiences a total power failure, rendering it out of service. The holder must promptly notify the FDNY. Which of the following pieces of information is most critical to provide to the FDNY dispatcher?
- The estimated number of occupants in the building.
- The name of the fire alarm service company.
- The building address and the specific nature of the impairment. (Correct answer)
- The S-95 holder's Certificate of Fitness number.
Correct answer: The building address and the specific nature of the impairment.
When reporting an out-of-service fire alarm system, the FDNY needs to know the exact location (address) and the nature of the problem (e.g., "complete system failure, no power"). This information is vital for their records and for their operational planning should they be dispatched to that address for a reported fire during the impairment.
Question 7: Under NFPA 72, which of the following occupancies is specifically excluded from the requirement to monitor a fire alarm system at a supervising station?
- Occupancies classified as low hazard by the AHJ
- Buildings with fewer than 50 occupants
- One- and two-family dwellings (Correct answer)
- Buildings protected throughout by automatic sprinklers
Correct answer: One- and two-family dwellings
NFPA 72 includes an exception that exempts one- and two-family dwellings from the supervising station monitoring requirement that applies to other occupancies.
Question 8: What is the maximum allowable response time from the initial alarm to notification appliance activation for a fire alarm system without voice evacuation?
- 60 seconds
- 10 seconds
- 90 seconds
- 30 seconds (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 30 seconds
NFPA 72 requires notification appliances to activate within 10 seconds of alarm initiation for systems without voice evacuation, but the commonly tested maximum for signal processing is 10 seconds; however, the standard most often referenced for audible output response is 10 seconds from signal to sound.
Question 9: A sprinkler system waterflow switch is classified as what type of initiating device?
- Supervisory initiating device
- Trouble initiating device
- Auxiliary initiating device
- Alarm initiating device (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Alarm initiating device
Waterflow switches are alarm initiating devices because water flowing through a sprinkler pipe indicates a fire has activated a sprinkler head, requiring an alarm signal.
Question 10: Which NFPA 72 signal category is associated with a 'low air pressure' condition on a dry-pipe or pre-action sprinkler system?
- Supervisory (Correct answer)
- Alarm
- Advisory
- Trouble
Correct answer: Supervisory
Low air pressure in a dry-pipe or pre-action system is a supervisory signal because it indicates the system's supervised condition is off-normal but has not yet operated.
Question 11: A fire alarm supervisor notices that the audible alarm devices activate but the strobe lights do not during a test. Under ADA requirements, this indicates:
- A suppression system integration failure
- A non-critical deficiency that can be corrected at next annual inspection
- A code-required life safety deficiency that must be corrected immediately or documented with compensatory measures (Correct answer)
- Normal behavior, since strobes are optional in commercial buildings
Correct answer: A code-required life safety deficiency that must be corrected immediately or documented with compensatory measures
Visible notification appliances (strobes) are required by ADA and NFPA 72 for hearing-impaired occupants; non-functioning strobes are a life safety deficiency requiring immediate corrective action or documented compensatory measures.
Question 12: What is required when an existing fire alarm control panel is replaced with a new model in an occupied building?
- The authority having jurisdiction need not be notified for a same-brand panel swap
- All initiating devices throughout the building must also be replaced at the same time
- Only the new control panel itself requires testing before returning the system to service
- The entire connected system must be retested and verified to confirm compatibility and code compliance (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The entire connected system must be retested and verified to confirm compatibility and code compliance
Replacing a panel can affect system-wide operation; NFPA 72 requires retesting all circuits and devices to confirm the replacement panel properly supervises and responds to all connected equipment.
Question 13: An ionization smoke detector is generally more responsive than a photoelectric detector to:
- Fires that are primarily generating heat with minimal smoke.
- Fires that are producing dense, dark smoke.
- Fast, flaming fires with small, invisible combustion particles. (Correct answer)
- Slow, smoldering fires with large smoke particles.
Correct answer: Fast, flaming fires with small, invisible combustion particles.
Ionization smoke detectors contain a small amount of radioactive material that ionizes the air between two charged plates, creating a current. When small, invisible particles of combustion from a fast-flaming fire enter the chamber, they disrupt this current, triggering the alarm. They are generally more sensitive to these types of fires than photoelectric detectors.
Question 14: A rate-of-rise heat detector is designed to activate when:
- The ambient temperature reaches a fixed-point, such as 135°F.
- Humidity in the protected area drops below a certain percentage.
- The temperature increases by a specified number of degrees per minute. (Correct answer)
- The detector senses the specific infrared signature of flames.
Correct answer: The temperature increases by a specified number of degrees per minute.
Rate-of-rise (ROR) heat detectors are triggered by a rapid increase in temperature over a short period, typically around 12-15°F (6.7-8.3°C) per minute. This allows them to signal an alarm before the temperature reaches a high fixed point, providing earlier warning for fast-developing fires.
Question 15: What is the designated primary power source for a fire alarm control panel (FACP)?
- On-site emergency generator
- Solar photovoltaic system
- Sealed lead-acid battery bank
- Commercial AC utility power (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Commercial AC utility power
Commercial AC utility power is the primary source; secondary power (batteries or generator) serves as backup when primary power fails.
Question 16: In a dusty industrial environment, such as a woodworking shop, which type of automatic initiating device would be most appropriate to minimize nuisance alarms?
- Photoelectric beam detector
- Ionization smoke detector
- Air-aspirating smoke detector
- Heat detector (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Heat detector
Heat detectors are the most suitable choice for dusty environments where smoke detectors are prone to false alarms caused by airborne particles. Heat detectors respond to the thermal energy of a fire and are unaffected by dust, making them more reliable in such locations.
Question 17: A manual pull station must be installed at what height above the finished floor per NFPA 72?
- Between 42 and 54 inches (Correct answer)
- Between 3.5 and 5 feet
- Between 48 and 60 inches
- Between 2.5 and 4 feet
Correct answer: Between 42 and 54 inches
NFPA 72 requires manual pull stations to be mounted with the operable part between 42 inches (3.5 ft) and 54 inches (4.5 ft) above the finished floor.
Question 18: If a fire alarm system's primary power supply fails and the system switches to secondary (battery) power, NFPA 72 requires the batteries to power the system in standby mode for at least:
- 24 hours followed by 5 minutes of alarm
- 72 hours followed by 30 minutes of alarm
- 24 hours followed by 15 minutes of alarm (Correct answer)
- 4 hours followed by 5 minutes of alarm
Correct answer: 24 hours followed by 15 minutes of alarm
NFPA 72 requires secondary power (batteries) to sustain the fire alarm system in standby for a minimum of 24 hours, followed by at least 5 minutes of full alarm operation (15 minutes for voice/evacuation systems).
Question 19: In addition to having 6 extra sprinkler heads, what other tool must be available on the property for sprinkler system maintenance?
- A spare fire extinguisher
- A pressure gauge
- A wrench (Correct answer)
- A sprinkler head removal tool
Correct answer: A wrench
For proper maintenance and emergency replacement of sprinkler heads, a specialized sprinkler head wrench is essential. This tool is designed to safely and effectively remove and install sprinkler heads without causing damage to the piping or the new head, ensuring quick restoration of fire protection.
Question 20: In what order of descending priority should signals generally be addressed at an FACP?
- Alarm, Supervisory, Trouble (Correct answer)
- Alarm, Trouble, Supervisory
- Trouble, Supervisory, Alarm
- Supervisory, Trouble, Alarm
Correct answer: Alarm, Supervisory, Trouble
The correct priority is Alarm, then Supervisory, then Trouble. An Alarm signal indicates a potential fire and must be addressed first. A Supervisory signal indicates a potential impairment of a fire protection system (like a closed sprinkler valve) and is the next priority. A Trouble signal indicates a fault with the fire alarm system itself and is addressed after any life-threatening or system-impairing conditions are resolved.
Question 21: Activation of a sprinkler system water flow switch connected to an FACP generates which type of signal?
- Supervisory signal
- Monitor signal
- Trouble signal
- Alarm signal (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Alarm signal
Water flowing through a sprinkler system indicates that a sprinkler head has likely activated due to a fire condition, generating an alarm signal requiring immediate response.
Question 22: When testing a fire alarm system that monitors a kitchen hood suppression system, activation of the suppression agent release must also result in:
- Activation of the sprinkler system in the same zone
- Shutdown of gas/fuel appliances and activation of fire alarm notification (Correct answer)
- Only a supervisory signal at the FACP
- Automatic FACP reset after 5 minutes
Correct answer: Shutdown of gas/fuel appliances and activation of fire alarm notification
Hood suppression release must trigger fuel appliance shutdown and fire alarm notification appliances per NFPA 96 and NFPA 72 integration requirements.
Question 23: A 'supervisory' signal on a fire alarm control panel indicates which condition?
- Complete failure of the secondary standby power source
- A device that has been manually placed out of service by a technician
- An off-normal condition in a protected system component that needs attention but is not a fire alarm (Correct answer)
- A confirmed fire requiring immediate building evacuation
Correct answer: An off-normal condition in a protected system component that needs attention but is not a fire alarm
Supervisory signals indicate impaired but not failed conditions—such as a sprinkler valve partially closed or a pressure drop—requiring correction to maintain full system protection.
Question 24: A Class A wiring style for fire alarm circuits, compared to Class B, provides the advantage of:
- Continued circuit operation even after a single open or ground fault (Correct answer)
- Compatibility with wireless devices only
- Faster signal transmission speeds to the monitoring center
- Lower installation cost due to fewer wire runs
Correct answer: Continued circuit operation even after a single open or ground fault
Class A wiring uses a loop configuration with end-of-line supervision, allowing the circuit to remain fully operational after a single open or ground fault by rerouting signals through the return path.
Question 25: In a commercial building, what is the primary function of a duct smoke detector?
- To activate the building's sprinkler system in the immediate vicinity of the ductwork.
- To measure the airflow velocity within the HVAC system for efficiency.
- To shut down the HVAC system and prevent the spread of smoke throughout the building. (Correct answer)
- To extinguish a fire within the HVAC ductwork using a suppression agent.
Correct answer: To shut down the HVAC system and prevent the spread of smoke throughout the building.
Duct smoke detectors are installed in HVAC ductwork to detect the presence of smoke. Their main purpose is to prevent the circulation of smoke from a fire in one area of a building to other areas through the ventilation system. Upon detecting smoke, they send a signal to the fire alarm control panel, which then typically shuts down the HVAC fans and closes dampers.
Question 26: In an addressable fire alarm system, each initiating device is assigned:
- A randomly generated address produced by the FACP at startup
- A shared group address based on its zone assignment
- A unique address allowing individual identification at the FACP (Correct answer)
- A color-coded wire connection rather than a numeric address
Correct answer: A unique address allowing individual identification at the FACP
Addressable systems assign a unique address to every device, enabling the FACP to identify exactly which device initiated an alarm or trouble condition.
Question 27: A carbon dioxide fire suppression system uses pressure switches to monitor the CO2 cylinder bank. A low-pressure reading from this switch would generate what type of signal?
- Advisory
- Supervisory (Correct answer)
- Alarm
- Trouble
Correct answer: Supervisory
Low pressure in a CO2 storage cylinder bank indicates the system may have insufficient agent to suppress a fire and is classified as a supervisory condition requiring investigation.
Question 28: When a fire alarm system is taken out of service for repairs in an occupied building, what is generally required by code?
- Post a sign at the main entrance
- Disable all exit signs
- Notify the AHJ and implement a fire watch (Correct answer)
- Evacuate the building immediately
Correct answer: Notify the AHJ and implement a fire watch
When a system is impaired, NFPA 72 and fire codes typically require notification to the AHJ and establishment of a fire watch.
Question 29: When a monitoring company receives a supervisory signal from a protected premises, the FIRST action required by NFPA 72 is to:
- Attempt to contact a designated representative at the protected premises (Correct answer)
- Log the signal and take no action until the building calls in
- Notify the local AHJ and wait for instructions
- Dispatch the fire department immediately
Correct answer: Attempt to contact a designated representative at the protected premises
NFPA 72 requires monitoring companies receiving supervisory signals to promptly attempt to contact a designated representative at the protected premises to investigate the condition.
Question 30: A sprinkler system water flow switch activates but no sprinkler heads have operated. The MOST likely cause is:
- Normal system test in progress without notification
- A supervisory signal being converted to alarm
- A trouble condition on the flow switch wiring
- Pressure surge or water hammer in the system (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Pressure surge or water hammer in the system
Pressure surges or water hammer can momentarily activate a flow switch without actual water flow, often called a false alarm.
Question 31: Under FDNY rules, the S-95 certificate holder must ensure that fire alarm system tests are conducted at minimum:
- Annually (Correct answer)
- Quarterly
- Monthly
- Semi-annually
Correct answer: Annually
FDNY requires at least an annual inspection and test of the fire alarm system, conducted by a licensed fire alarm company under S-95 supervision.
Question 32: Which code focuses on fire prevention and safety measures for facilities but does not specifically detail fire alarm system installations?
- NFPA 101 (Correct answer)
- NFPA 25
- NFPA 13
- NFPA 30
Correct answer: NFPA 101
NFPA 101, known as the Life Safety Code, focuses on minimum requirements for life safety in buildings, emphasizing safe egress and fire prevention. While it mandates the presence and proper function of fire alarm systems as part of overall life safety, it does not provide the detailed technical specifications for their installation, which are covered by NFPA 72.
Question 33: According to NFPA 72, what is the minimum required capacity for the secondary power supply (batteries) for a standard, non-voice fire alarm system?
- 48 hours of operation in standby, followed by 5 minutes in alarm.
- 24 hours of operation in standby, followed by 15 minutes in alarm.
- 24 hours of operation in standby, followed by 5 minutes in alarm. (Correct answer)
- 12 hours of operation in standby, followed by 5 minutes in alarm.
Correct answer: 24 hours of operation in standby, followed by 5 minutes in alarm.
NFPA 72 requires the secondary power supply to have enough capacity to operate the fire alarm system under normal (quiescent) load for a minimum of 24 hours, and then operate all alarm notification appliances for at least 5 minutes. The 15-minute alarm requirement applies to systems with voice evacuation capabilities.
Question 34: During a functional test, a strobe light on a notification appliance does not flash. The first diagnostic step should be to:
- Check the NAC circuit voltage at the appliance terminals under alarm load (Correct answer)
- Reprogram the FACP output card
- Submit a deficiency report without further investigation
- Replace the strobe unit immediately
Correct answer: Check the NAC circuit voltage at the appliance terminals under alarm load
Verifying circuit voltage under load is the first step because insufficient voltage is the most common cause of strobe failure.
Question 35: According to NFPA 72, how often must supervisory signals be tested in a system with central station monitoring?
- Annually (Correct answer)
- Quarterly
- Monthly
- Semiannually
Correct answer: Annually
NFPA 72 requires supervisory signal devices to be tested annually unless the authority having jurisdiction specifies a different frequency.
Question 36: Which of the following is a requirement for the installation of manual fire alarm pull stations according to NFPA 72?
- The travel distance to the nearest station must not exceed 300 feet.
- They must be located within 5 feet (60 inches) of the entrance to each exit. (Correct answer)
- The operable part must be mounted between 54 and 60 inches above the finished floor.
- They must be painted yellow for high visibility in smoky conditions.
Correct answer: They must be located within 5 feet (60 inches) of the entrance to each exit.
NFPA 72, the National Fire Alarm and Signaling Code, requires that manual fire alarm boxes (pull stations) be located within 5 feet (60 inches) of the entrance to each exit. The operable part should be between 42 and 48 inches from the floor, and they are required to be red in color.
S-95 Exam
The FDNY S-95 Certificate of Fitness exam certifies individuals to supervise fire alarm systems and other related systems in New York City. It covers NFPA 72, the NYC Fire Code, Fire Rules (RCNY), and OSHA standards.
Exam Rules
- You can skip questions and return to them later
- Flag questions for review before submitting
- No feedback shown until you submit the entire exam
- Unanswered questions count as wrong — answer everything
- 10 pretest questions are mixed in and don't affect your score
- Timer auto-submits when time runs out
- Your progress is auto-saved every 30 seconds
These practice questions were written with AI tools. They are not real exam questions. Exam facts are checked against the official sources listed below. Not reviewed by a subject-matter expert. Editorial policy
Sources & references
Exam facts on this page (fees, format, dates, passing scores) are checked against these official sources; the date is our last check. Editorial policy
- nyc.gov — Fees, renewal, score validity, eligibility, retake policy, score release, test dates, test delivery, exam format, passing score · verified Oct 2026