S-95 Exam — Questions and Answers
Question 1: During a fire alarm signal, the control unit begins a pre-signal delay before notifying occupants. What is the primary purpose of this delay?
- To reset the initiating device if it was triggered accidentally
- To permit trained personnel to investigate and confirm the alarm before general evacuation (Correct answer)
- To allow time for automatic suppression systems to activate first
- To give the fire department time to arrive on scene before occupants react
Correct answer: To permit trained personnel to investigate and confirm the alarm before general evacuation
A pre-signal (or presignal) delay allows designated staff to investigate the alarm source before general notification, reducing unnecessary evacuations.
Question 2: A sprinkler system water flow switch activates but no sprinkler heads have operated. The MOST likely cause is:
- Pressure surge or water hammer in the system (Correct answer)
- Normal system test in progress without notification
- A supervisory signal being converted to alarm
- A trouble condition on the flow switch wiring
Correct answer: Pressure surge or water hammer in the system
Pressure surges or water hammer can momentarily activate a flow switch without actual water flow, often called a false alarm.
Question 3: A fire alarm system initiating device circuit (IDC) in Class B configuration is also referred to as a:
- Style A circuit
- Style D circuit
- Style B circuit (Correct answer)
- Supervised loop circuit
Correct answer: Style B circuit
NFPA 72 designates Class B (formerly Style B or Style C) circuits as those that do not provide full fault isolation; a single open or ground fault disables part or all of the circuit.
Question 4: The purpose of a 'waterflow retard' on a wet-pipe sprinkler system alarm check valve is to:
- Increase system water pressure during demand
- Delay the alarm signal to reduce false activations from surges (Correct answer)
- Monitor the flow switch sensitivity continuously
- Generate a supervisory signal during normal testing
Correct answer: Delay the alarm signal to reduce false activations from surges
A retard chamber delays the waterflow alarm signal by a few seconds to allow brief pressure surges to pass without triggering a false alarm.
Question 5: According to NFPA 72, what is the minimum required capacity for the secondary power supply (batteries) for a standard, non-voice fire alarm system?
- 48 hours of operation in standby, followed by 5 minutes in alarm.
- 12 hours of operation in standby, followed by 5 minutes in alarm.
- 24 hours of operation in standby, followed by 5 minutes in alarm. (Correct answer)
- 24 hours of operation in standby, followed by 15 minutes in alarm.
Correct answer: 24 hours of operation in standby, followed by 5 minutes in alarm.
NFPA 72 requires the secondary power supply to have enough capacity to operate the fire alarm system under normal (quiescent) load for a minimum of 24 hours, and then operate all alarm notification appliances for at least 5 minutes. The 15-minute alarm requirement applies to systems with voice evacuation capabilities.
Question 6: A smoke detector in a corridor repeatedly goes into alarm during early morning hours with no visible smoke present. The MOST likely cause is:
- Faulty wiring in the initiating device circuit
- High humidity or condensation affecting the detector chamber (Correct answer)
- The detector is programmed for nighttime sensitivity mode
- Electromagnetic interference from HVAC startup
Correct answer: High humidity or condensation affecting the detector chamber
High humidity or condensation can cause ionization and photoelectric detectors to alarm nuisance-free by mimicking smoke particle density in the sensing chamber.
Question 7: In most US jurisdictions, which agency enforces fire alarm system code compliance in existing commercial buildings?
- OSHA area office
- EPA regional office
- Local fire marshal or fire prevention bureau (Correct answer)
- State insurance commission
Correct answer: Local fire marshal or fire prevention bureau
The local fire marshal or fire prevention bureau typically enforces fire alarm code compliance in existing commercial occupancies.
Question 8: A partially closed sprinkler system control valve would generate which type of FACP signal?
- Monitor signal
- Trouble signal
- Alarm signal
- Supervisory signal (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Supervisory signal
A partially closed control valve places the sprinkler system in an off-normal condition, which triggers a supervisory signal at the FACP.
Question 9: In a commercial building, what is the primary function of a duct smoke detector?
- To measure the airflow velocity within the HVAC system for efficiency.
- To shut down the HVAC system and prevent the spread of smoke throughout the building. (Correct answer)
- To activate the building's sprinkler system in the immediate vicinity of the ductwork.
- To extinguish a fire within the HVAC ductwork using a suppression agent.
Correct answer: To shut down the HVAC system and prevent the spread of smoke throughout the building.
Duct smoke detectors are installed in HVAC ductwork to detect the presence of smoke. Their main purpose is to prevent the circulation of smoke from a fire in one area of a building to other areas through the ventilation system. Upon detecting smoke, they send a signal to the fire alarm control panel, which then typically shuts down the HVAC fans and closes dampers.
Question 10: What causes a 'ground fault' trouble signal on a fire alarm Notification Appliance Circuit (NAC)?
- An open break in the positive conductor
- A failed notification appliance drawing excessive current
- An unintended electrical connection between a circuit conductor and the building's grounding system (Correct answer)
- Battery voltage dropping below the alarm threshold
Correct answer: An unintended electrical connection between a circuit conductor and the building's grounding system
A ground fault occurs when a NAC conductor makes unintended contact with a grounded object such as conduit or structural steel, creating an abnormal current path the panel detects.
Question 11: An addressable fire alarm system differs from a conventional system in that it:
- Is limited to residential and small commercial occupancies
- Can identify the specific device in alarm or trouble by its unique address (Correct answer)
- Does not require a central control unit to operate
- Uses wireless radio frequency devices instead of wired circuits
Correct answer: Can identify the specific device in alarm or trouble by its unique address
Addressable systems assign each device a unique identifier, allowing the control panel to pinpoint exactly which device is reporting an alarm or fault.
Question 12: After a confirmed false alarm caused by steam from a newly installed kitchen exhaust system, the BEST corrective action for the supervisor to recommend is:
- Install a manual pull station nearby instead
- Disable the detector in that area permanently
- Move the control panel to a different room
- Replace the smoke detector with a rate-of-rise heat detector or multi-sensor detector better suited to the environment (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Replace the smoke detector with a rate-of-rise heat detector or multi-sensor detector better suited to the environment
Selecting detection technology appropriate for the environment—such as a heat detector or multi-criteria detector resistant to steam—eliminates nuisance alarms while maintaining proper protection.
Question 13: A supervisory signal is received at the fire alarm control panel indicating a valve has moved from its normal position. What is the FIRST action required?
- Disable the supervisory zone until the next inspection
- Transmit an alarm signal to the fire department
- Silence the supervisory signal and log it
- Investigate and restore the valve to its normal position (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Investigate and restore the valve to its normal position
Supervisory signals indicate off-normal conditions that must be investigated and corrected by restoring the device to its normal supervised position.
Question 14: How must a fire alarm system respond when primary AC power is lost?
- Sound a trouble signal and initiate a controlled shutdown
- Transfer to secondary power immediately and automatically with no interruption (Correct answer)
- Transfer to secondary power within 10 seconds
- Transfer to secondary power within 60 seconds
Correct answer: Transfer to secondary power immediately and automatically with no interruption
Per NFPA 72, the transfer from primary to secondary power must be automatic and immediate, with no gap in system operation.
Question 15: A cross-zoned detection system requires two separate detection zones to activate before sounding a full alarm. If only one zone activates, the FACP would typically display a:
- Full building evacuation alarm
- Pre-alarm or investigation signal (Correct answer)
- Trouble signal
- Supervisory signal
Correct answer: Pre-alarm or investigation signal
In a cross-zoned system, single-zone activation typically generates a pre-alarm or investigation condition rather than a full alarm until the second zone confirms.
Question 16: Which NFPA standard specifically governs the inspection, testing, and maintenance of fire alarm systems in the US?
- NFPA 13
- NFPA 1
- NFPA 101
- NFPA 72 (Correct answer)
Correct answer: NFPA 72
NFPA 72, the National Fire Alarm and Signaling Code, is the primary standard that governs inspection, testing, and maintenance of fire alarm systems.
Question 17: During a fire alarm event, a building supervisor is asked by firefighters to perform a 'positive alarm sequence' reset. This action:
- Transfers control of the system to the fire department
- Resets all initiating devices to normal status
- Allows a trained operator up to 3 minutes to investigate before the general alarm sounds, applicable only to certain system types (Correct answer)
- Immediately silences all audible and visible devices
Correct answer: Allows a trained operator up to 3 minutes to investigate before the general alarm sounds, applicable only to certain system types
Positive alarm sequence (PAS) gives a trained operator a defined investigation period (up to 3 minutes per NFPA 72) before the general occupant alarm activates, and is only permitted in specific occupancy types.
Question 18: How frequently must fire alarm system batteries undergo a full discharge (load) test per NFPA 72?
- Monthly
- Every five years
- Annually (Correct answer)
- Quarterly
Correct answer: Annually
NFPA 72 Chapter 14 requires an annual battery discharge test to verify that batteries can sustain the required load for the full standby and alarm durations.
Question 19: An S-95 holder at a high-rise office building must ensure occupants on affected floors are notified via the alarm system using:
- A written memo distributed by hand
- The voice communication system or alarm notification appliances per the fire safety plan (Correct answer)
- Personal cell phone calls to floor wardens only
- A public address announcement by the building manager
Correct answer: The voice communication system or alarm notification appliances per the fire safety plan
High-rise buildings use voice communication systems or alarm notification appliances consistent with the building's fire safety plan to notify occupants.
Question 20: An S-95 holder observes a supervisory signal on the FACP indicating 'Fire Pump Power Off'. Which of the following best describes the situation?
- The fire alarm system's backup batteries are low and require replacement.
- A fault exists in the fire alarm wiring, such as an open circuit.
- A component critical to the building's fire suppression system is in an abnormal state. (Correct answer)
- The primary power to the FACP has been lost and it is running on secondary power.
Correct answer: A component critical to the building's fire suppression system is in an abnormal state.
A supervisory signal indicates an issue with a system or equipment that the fire alarm panel monitors, rather than a fault in the fire alarm system itself. A 'Fire Pump Power Off' condition means the fire pump, a key part of the sprinkler suppression system, has lost power and is in an off-normal state that requires attention. Low batteries or wiring faults in the FACP would generate a trouble signal.
Question 21: What type of test verifies that audible notification appliances produce the required sound pressure levels throughout a facility?
- Functional test
- Sound level measurement test (Correct answer)
- Impedance test
- Sensitivity test
Correct answer: Sound level measurement test
A sound level measurement test uses a calibrated sound level meter to confirm notification appliances meet minimum dB levels per NFPA 72.
Question 22: Which of the following best describes the role of the fire alarm control panel (FACP)?
- It only activates notification appliances when signaled by a sprinkler system
- It only receives alarm signals from initiating devices
- It monitors, controls, and coordinates all fire alarm system components (Correct answer)
- It serves solely as the secondary power supply for system devices
Correct answer: It monitors, controls, and coordinates all fire alarm system components
The FACP is the system's brain, continuously monitoring all circuits, processing signals, and controlling outputs such as notification appliances and auxiliary functions.
Question 23: When a fire alarm control unit receives a ground fault indication, the supervisor should FIRST:
- Reset the control unit to clear the indication from the display
- Immediately evacuate the building as a precautionary measure
- Silence the trouble signal and document the condition for later service
- Notify the authority having jurisdiction (AHJ) and arrange for prompt repair (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Notify the authority having jurisdiction (AHJ) and arrange for prompt repair
A ground fault is a trouble condition that must be reported to the AHJ and corrected promptly, as it can impair system reliability.
Question 24: The FDNY must be notified BEFORE a planned impairment to the fire alarm system that will last longer than:
- 4 hours
- 1 hour (Correct answer)
- 15 minutes
- 30 minutes
Correct answer: 1 hour
The FDNY must be notified in advance of any planned fire alarm system impairment expected to exceed one hour.
Question 25: During a planned fire alarm system test, what is a critical notification requirement that must be met before any testing begins, as per NFPA 72?
- Post signs on the main floor indicating testing is in progress.
- Contact the FDNY borough dispatcher with the exact test schedule.
- Notify the building owner and the S-95 holder only.
- Notify all persons and facilities receiving signals, as well as all building occupants. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Notify all persons and facilities receiving signals, as well as all building occupants.
NFPA 72 Section 14.2.4.1 mandates that before proceeding with any testing, all persons and facilities that receive alarm, supervisory, or trouble signals (like the central station) and all building occupants must be notified to prevent unnecessary response and confusion.
Question 26: A building's fire alarm control unit (FACU) displays a 'trouble' signal rather than an alarm signal. What does this indicate?
- The system has been placed in test mode
- A confirmed fire event is in progress
- A fault or supervisory condition exists in the system that requires attention (Correct answer)
- A sprinkler head has activated
Correct answer: A fault or supervisory condition exists in the system that requires attention
A trouble signal on an FACU indicates a fault or supervisory condition—such as a wiring break, low battery, or disabled device—that requires investigation and correction.
Question 27: When a fire alarm system is taken out of service for repairs in an occupied building, what is generally required by code?
- Evacuate the building immediately
- Disable all exit signs
- Post a sign at the main entrance
- Notify the AHJ and implement a fire watch (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Notify the AHJ and implement a fire watch
When a system is impaired, NFPA 72 and fire codes typically require notification to the AHJ and establishment of a fire watch.
Question 28: Which of the following is a requirement for the installation of manual fire alarm pull stations according to NFPA 72?
- They must be painted yellow for high visibility in smoky conditions.
- The travel distance to the nearest station must not exceed 300 feet.
- The operable part must be mounted between 54 and 60 inches above the finished floor.
- They must be located within 5 feet (60 inches) of the entrance to each exit. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: They must be located within 5 feet (60 inches) of the entrance to each exit.
NFPA 72, the National Fire Alarm and Signaling Code, requires that manual fire alarm boxes (pull stations) be located within 5 feet (60 inches) of the entrance to each exit. The operable part should be between 42 and 48 inches from the floor, and they are required to be red in color.
Question 29: A rate-of-rise heat detector is designed to activate when:
- The detector senses the specific infrared signature of flames.
- Humidity in the protected area drops below a certain percentage.
- The temperature increases by a specified number of degrees per minute. (Correct answer)
- The ambient temperature reaches a fixed-point, such as 135°F.
Correct answer: The temperature increases by a specified number of degrees per minute.
Rate-of-rise (ROR) heat detectors are triggered by a rapid increase in temperature over a short period, typically around 12-15°F (6.7-8.3°C) per minute. This allows them to signal an alarm before the temperature reaches a high fixed point, providing earlier warning for fast-developing fires.
Question 30: During a monthly inspection of a fire alarm system's secondary power supply, what is a key visual check an S-95 holder must perform on the lead-acid batteries?
- Check for corrosion on terminals and signs of leakage from the battery case. (Correct answer)
- Measure the specific gravity of the electrolyte.
- Perform a 30-minute discharge test.
- Verify the battery manufacturer date is within the last year.
Correct answer: Check for corrosion on terminals and signs of leakage from the battery case.
Monthly visual inspections of batteries are crucial. The S-95 holder should look for signs of deterioration such as corrosion on the terminals or leakage of battery fluid, as these can impede performance during a power failure.
Question 31: Under NFPA 72, who is ultimately responsible for ensuring that fire alarm system inspections, testing, and maintenance are performed on schedule?
- The authority having jurisdiction (AHJ)
- The installing contractor
- The property owner or their designated representative (Correct answer)
- The fire alarm service company
Correct answer: The property owner or their designated representative
NFPA 72 places the responsibility for scheduling and ensuring inspections, testing, and maintenance on the property owner or their designated representative.
Question 32: An ionization smoke detector is generally more responsive than a photoelectric detector to:
- Fires that are primarily generating heat with minimal smoke.
- Fast, flaming fires with small, invisible combustion particles. (Correct answer)
- Slow, smoldering fires with large smoke particles.
- Fires that are producing dense, dark smoke.
Correct answer: Fast, flaming fires with small, invisible combustion particles.
Ionization smoke detectors contain a small amount of radioactive material that ionizes the air between two charged plates, creating a current. When small, invisible particles of combustion from a fast-flaming fire enter the chamber, they disrupt this current, triggering the alarm. They are generally more sensitive to these types of fires than photoelectric detectors.
Question 33: An aspirating smoke detection (ASD) system draws air samples through a pipe network to a central detection unit. What is a primary advantage of this design?
- Higher alarm threshold to reduce nuisance alarms
- Lower installation cost than spot detectors
- Simpler maintenance with fewer parts
- Ability to detect extremely low concentrations of smoke at very early stages (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Ability to detect extremely low concentrations of smoke at very early stages
ASD systems actively sample air and can detect very low concentrations of smoke particles, providing early warning long before a conventional spot detector would respond.
Question 34: According to NFPA 72, the maximum allowable response time for a fire alarm signal to be received at a supervising station after initiation is:
- 90 seconds
- 5 minutes
- 30 seconds
- 60 seconds (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 60 seconds
NFPA 72 requires that a supervisory or alarm signal be received at the supervising station within 60 seconds of being initiated.
Question 35: Which NFPA standard specifically governs the installation, inspection, and testing of fire alarm and signaling systems?
- NFPA 72 (Correct answer)
- NFPA 101
- NFPA 1
- NFPA 13
Correct answer: NFPA 72
NFPA 72, the National Fire Alarm and Signaling Code, specifically governs fire alarm system installation, inspection, testing, and maintenance.
Question 36: A photoelectric smoke detector is most effective at detecting which type of fire?
- A fire that causes a rapid increase in temperature with little to no smoke.
- A slow, smoldering fire that produces a large amount of smoke. (Correct answer)
- A fire involving flammable liquids that spreads rapidly.
- A fire in a commercial kitchen with high ambient temperatures.
Correct answer: A slow, smoldering fire that produces a large amount of smoke.
Photoelectric smoke detectors operate using a light source and a sensor. When smoke particles enter the chamber, they scatter the light beam, causing it to hit the sensor and trigger the alarm. This technology is particularly effective at detecting the larger smoke particles produced by slow, smoldering fires.
S-95 Exam
The FDNY S-95 Certificate of Fitness exam certifies individuals to supervise fire alarm systems and other related systems in New York City. It covers NFPA 72, the NYC Fire Code, Fire Rules (RCNY), and OSHA standards.
Exam Rules
- You can skip questions and return to them later
- Flag questions for review before submitting
- No feedback shown until you submit the entire exam
- Unanswered questions count as wrong — answer everything
- 10 pretest questions are mixed in and don't affect your score
- Timer auto-submits when time runs out
- Your progress is auto-saved every 30 seconds
These practice questions were written with AI tools. They are not real exam questions. Exam facts are checked against the official sources listed below. Not reviewed by a subject-matter expert. Editorial policy
Sources & references
Exam facts on this page (fees, format, dates, passing scores) are checked against these official sources; the date is our last check. Editorial policy
- nyc.gov — Fees, renewal, score validity, eligibility, retake policy, score release, test dates, test delivery, exam format, passing score · verified Oct 2026