A client in her early 70s wants to hold 100% bonds for safety. Which concept BEST explains why this extreme conservative allocation could actually increase her retirement risk?
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A
Inflation risk eroding the purchasing power of fixed income returns over a 20+ year horizon
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B
Interest rate risk causing immediate mark-to-market losses on her bond portfolio
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C
Credit risk from corporate bond defaults in a recession
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D
Reinvestment risk from bond coupon payments