PTCB Practice Test: Video 3 Answers (25 Questions) — Questions and Answers
Question 1: Which drug is a direct-acting oral anticoagulant (DOAC) that inhibits Factor Xa?
- Warfarin
- Dabigatran
- Rivaroxaban (Correct answer)
- Heparin
Correct answer: Rivaroxaban
Rivaroxaban (Xarelto) is a direct Factor Xa inhibitor used for stroke prevention and DVT/PE treatment.
Question 2: What is the mechanism of action of NSAIDs?
- Inhibit COX enzymes to reduce prostaglandin synthesis (Correct answer)
- Block histamine H2 receptors
- Block opioid receptors
- Stimulate serotonin receptors
Correct answer: Inhibit COX enzymes to reduce prostaglandin synthesis
NSAIDs work by inhibiting cyclooxygenase (COX-1 and COX-2) enzymes, reducing the production of prostaglandins that cause pain and inflammation.
Question 3: What is the term for the time it takes for a drug's plasma concentration to decrease by 50%?
- Peak time
- Half-life (Correct answer)
- Onset of action
- Duration of action
Correct answer: Half-life
The half-life (t½) is the time required for the drug concentration in the plasma to decrease by half, determining dosing intervals.
Question 4: Which electrolyte imbalance is a common side effect of loop diuretics like furosemide?
- Hyperkalemia
- Hypokalemia (Correct answer)
- Hypercalcemia
- Hypernatremia
Correct answer: Hypokalemia
Loop diuretics cause increased urinary excretion of potassium, leading to hypokalemia (low blood potassium levels).
Question 5: What is the primary adverse effect that limits the use of aminoglycoside antibiotics?
- Hepatotoxicity
- Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity (Correct answer)
- Bone marrow suppression
- Pulmonary fibrosis
Correct answer: Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity
Aminoglycosides (gentamicin, tobramycin) carry significant risk of nephrotoxicity (kidney damage) and ototoxicity (hearing loss), requiring level monitoring.
Question 6: What does the term 'look-alike, sound-alike' (LASA) drugs refer to?
- Generic and brand name pairs
- Drugs in the same therapeutic class
- Drugs confused due to similar names or packaging (Correct answer)
- Drugs with identical dosage forms
Correct answer: Drugs confused due to similar names or packaging
LASA drugs are medications that can be confused with each other because their names look or sound similar, a major cause of medication errors.
Question 7: Which term describes a list of drugs known to cause serious harm if used incorrectly?
- LASA Drug List
- Black Box Warning List
- High-Alert Medications List (Correct answer)
- Tall Man Lettering List
Correct answer: High-Alert Medications List
The ISMP High-Alert Medications List identifies drugs that bear a heightened risk of causing significant patient harm when misused.
Question 8: Which of the following is an example of a 'near miss' in pharmacy?
- A prescription is filled with the wrong strength
- A drug is dispensed to the wrong patient
- An error is caught before reaching the patient (Correct answer)
- A patient is harmed by the wrong drug
Correct answer: An error is caught before reaching the patient
A near miss is an error or unsafe situation that was caught before causing harm to the patient.
Question 9: Which organization runs the MedWatch program for adverse drug event reporting?
- DEA
- FDA (Correct answer)
- ISMP
- ASHP
Correct answer: FDA
The FDA's MedWatch program is the safety information and adverse event reporting system for healthcare professionals and patients.
Question 10: What is the purpose of auxiliary labels on prescription bottles?
- To provide additional safety warnings or instructions (Correct answer)
- To replace the main label
- To indicate insurance coverage
- To confirm the pharmacist's name
Correct answer: To provide additional safety warnings or instructions
Auxiliary labels (e.g., 'Take with food,' 'May cause drowsiness') provide supplemental safety information beyond the main prescription label.
Question 11: A pharmacist can dispense a Schedule II drug in an emergency without a written prescription for up to how many days' supply?
- 3 days
- 5 days
- 7 days
- 72-hour supply (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 72-hour supply
In a bona fide emergency, a pharmacist may dispense a Schedule II drug based on an oral prescription sufficient to treat the patient for 72 hours.
Question 12: Which law requires pharmacies to maintain a medication error tracking system for Medicare Part D plans?
- HIPAA
- OBRA '90
- Medicare Modernization Act (MMA) (Correct answer)
- ACA
Correct answer: Medicare Modernization Act (MMA)
The Medicare Modernization Act of 2003 established Medicare Part D prescription drug coverage and related compliance requirements.
Question 13: Which agency is responsible for approving new drugs before they can be marketed in the US?
- CMS
- CDC
- DEA
- FDA (Correct answer)
Correct answer: FDA
The FDA (Food and Drug Administration) reviews and approves all new drug applications before a drug can be sold in the US.
Question 14: A DEA Form 222 is required for ordering which type of drugs?
- Schedule III–V only
- Schedule II only (Correct answer)
- All controlled substances
- All prescription drugs
Correct answer: Schedule II only
DEA Form 222 (or the electronic CSOS equivalent) is required for ordering Schedule II controlled substances.
Question 15: Which amendment to the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act distinguished legend from OTC drugs?
- Drug Price Competition Act
- Durham-Humphrey Amendment (Correct answer)
- Kefauver-Harris Amendment
- DSHEA
Correct answer: Durham-Humphrey Amendment
The Durham-Humphrey Amendment of 1951 defined which drugs require a prescription (legend drugs) and which can be sold OTC.
Question 16: What is the process of comparing a new medication order against a patient's existing medication list called?
- Drug utilization review
- Prior authorization
- Formulary review
- Medication reconciliation (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Medication reconciliation
Medication reconciliation ensures the patient's medication list is accurate and complete during care transitions.
Question 17: What information is NOT required on a valid prescription?
- Patient's name
- Prescriber's DEA number (for non-controlled drugs) (Correct answer)
- Drug name and strength
- Date written
Correct answer: Prescriber's DEA number (for non-controlled drugs)
A prescriber's DEA number is only required on prescriptions for controlled substances, not for non-controlled medications.
Question 18: Which of the following is an example of a pharmacist performing a prospective drug utilization review (DUR)?
- Auditing past prescriptions for compliance
- Reporting adverse events to the FDA
- Checking for drug-drug interactions before dispensing (Correct answer)
- Reviewing dispensing records for billing errors
Correct answer: Checking for drug-drug interactions before dispensing
Prospective DUR occurs before dispensing and involves checking for interactions, allergies, and therapeutic duplications.
Question 19: What does 'UD' mean on a hospital medication order?
- Unit Dose (Correct answer)
- Usual Dose
- Unspecified Drug
- Undiluted
Correct answer: Unit Dose
UD (Unit Dose) refers to the system in which each dose is individually packaged and labeled for a single administration.
Question 20: A prescription reads: 'Lisinopril 10 mg, i tab PO QD #30, Ref x3'. How many days' supply is authorized in total?
- 120 days (Correct answer)
- 90 days
- 60 days
- 30 days
Correct answer: 120 days
30 tablets per fill × 4 fills (1 original + 3 refills) = 120 tablets at 1/day = 120 days' supply total.
Question 21: Which drug class does metformin belong to?
- SGLT-2 inhibitor
- Sulfonylurea
- Biguanide (Correct answer)
- DPP-4 inhibitor
Correct answer: Biguanide
Metformin is a biguanide used as a first-line oral antidiabetic agent.
Question 22: Albuterol is used primarily for which condition?
- Asthma (Correct answer)
- Hypertension
- Hyperlipidemia
- Diabetes
Correct answer: Asthma
Albuterol is a short-acting beta-2 agonist bronchodilator used for acute asthma relief.
Question 23: Amoxicillin is classified as which type of antibiotic?
- Cephalosporin
- Penicillin (Correct answer)
- Fluoroquinolone
- Macrolide
Correct answer: Penicillin
Amoxicillin is a broad-spectrum aminopenicillin antibiotic that inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis.
Question 24: What is the primary indication for furosemide?
- Hyperlipidemia
- Edema and hypertension (Correct answer)
- Type 2 diabetes
- Osteoporosis
Correct answer: Edema and hypertension
Furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic primarily used to reduce fluid retention in edema and treat hypertension.
Question 25: Which drug is a proton pump inhibitor (PPI)?
- Famotidine
- Pantoprazole (Correct answer)
- Ranitidine
- Sucralfate
Correct answer: Pantoprazole
Pantoprazole (Protonix) irreversibly inhibits the gastric proton pump to reduce acid secretion.
