Pharmacy Technician Certification Exam — Questions and Answers

Question 1: A prescription reads: 'Lisinopril 10 mg, i tab PO QD #30, Ref x3'. How many days' supply is authorized in total?

120 days (Correct answer)
30 days
90 days
60 days

Correct answer: 120 days

30 tablets per fill × 4 fills (1 original + 3 refills) = 120 tablets at 1/day = 120 days' supply total.

Question 2: What is the purpose of tracking lot numbers for medications in a pharmacy?

To calculate days supply for controlled substances
To track insurance billing codes
To verify the prescriber's DEA number
To identify specific batches of product in the event of a recall (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To identify specific batches of product in the event of a recall

Lot numbers identify specific manufacturing batches, allowing pharmacies to quickly locate and remove affected products during a drug recall.

Question 3: What is the meaning of 'ii gtts AU TID' in a prescription?

2 drops in both ears three times daily (Correct answer)
2 drops in both eyes three times daily
2 drops in the right ear three times daily
2 tablets by mouth three times daily

Correct answer: 2 drops in both ears three times daily

AU = both ears, gtts = drops, TID = three times daily; so the sig means instill 2 drops in both ears three times daily.

Question 4: What does 'DAW 1' on a prescription mean?

Substitution allowed — patient's request
Dispense as written — prescriber requests brand, no substitution (Correct answer)
Dispense as written — patient requests brand
Generic substitution allowed

Correct answer: Dispense as written — prescriber requests brand, no substitution

DAW 1 (Dispense As Written) code 1 means the prescriber mandates brand-name dispensing and no generic substitution is permitted.

Question 5: What is an NPI number?

National Pharmacy Identifier
New Prescription Invoice
Non-Preferred Item code
National Provider Identifier (Correct answer)

Correct answer: National Provider Identifier

An NPI (National Provider Identifier) is a unique 10-digit identification number for healthcare providers, required on all HIPAA transactions.

Question 6: What does 'prior authorization' (PA) mean in pharmacy processing?

Patient consent for medication therapy
Insurer approval required before a drug will be covered (Correct answer)
A prescriber's DEA registration
Pharmacist verification of a prescription

Correct answer: Insurer approval required before a drug will be covered

Prior authorization requires the prescriber to obtain approval from the insurance plan before the drug will be covered for that patient.

Question 7: Which of the following is an isotonic IV solution?

3% NaCl (hypertonic saline)
0.45% NaCl (half-normal saline)
0.9% NaCl (normal saline) (Correct answer)
D5W (5% dextrose in water)

Correct answer: 0.9% NaCl (normal saline)

0.9% NaCl (normal saline) is isotonic with a tonicity of approximately 308 mOsm/L, close to plasma osmolarity.

Question 8: Which of the following best describes a 'drug shortage' and the pharmacy technician's appropriate response?

A temporary supply disruption; the technician should notify the pharmacist so alternatives can be identified (Correct answer)
A medication recalled by the FDA; the technician should quarantine all stock
A drug that is permanently discontinued; the technician should remove it from the formulary
A drug that requires prior authorization; the technician should contact insurance

Correct answer: A temporary supply disruption; the technician should notify the pharmacist so alternatives can be identified

Drug shortages are temporary supply disruptions; technicians should alert the pharmacist who can work with prescribers to identify therapeutic alternatives.

Question 9: Patients taking MAOIs should avoid which food substance due to the risk of hypertensive crisis?

Tyramine (Correct answer)
Vitamin C
Gluten
Calcium

Correct answer: Tyramine

MAOIs inhibit the enzyme that breaks down tyramine; consuming tyramine-rich foods (aged cheeses, cured meats) can cause a dangerous hypertensive crisis.

Question 10: What PPE is required when handling hazardous drugs during compounding?

Double gloves, gown, eye protection, and respiratory protection as needed (Correct answer)
Gloves only
Gown only
Standard lab coat and single gloves

Correct answer: Double gloves, gown, eye protection, and respiratory protection as needed

USP <800> requires double gloves, a chemotherapy-rated gown, eye/face protection, and respiratory protection when handling hazardous drugs.

Question 11: What does tonicity refer to in the context of IV fluids?

The viscosity of the fluid
The osmotic pressure of a solution relative to blood plasma (Correct answer)
The temperature of the solution
The pH of the solution

Correct answer: The osmotic pressure of a solution relative to blood plasma

Tonicity describes the effective osmotic pressure of a solution relative to plasma (approximately 285–295 mOsm/kg), determining its effect on cell volume.

Question 12: A pharmacy receives a drug recall notice. Which action should be taken FIRST?

Notify all patients who received the drug
Identify and quarantine the recalled lot numbers from dispensing stock (Correct answer)
Contact the state board of pharmacy
Discard all recalled product immediately

Correct answer: Identify and quarantine the recalled lot numbers from dispensing stock

The first step is to identify affected lot numbers and physically quarantine them so no further dispensing occurs while the recall is processed.

Question 13: A root cause analysis (RCA) is performed after a medication error to:

Determine the patient's legal rights
Assign blame to the responsible party
Calculate financial liability
Identify underlying system failures that contributed to the error (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Identify underlying system failures that contributed to the error

RCA is a systematic process to identify the fundamental causes of a medication error to prevent recurrence — not to assign blame.

Question 14: Which of the following is a Schedule IV controlled substance?

Alprazolam (Correct answer)
Morphine
Hydrocodone
Codeine

Correct answer: Alprazolam

Alprazolam (Xanax) is a benzodiazepine classified as Schedule IV with lower abuse potential than Schedule III.

Question 15: What is the process of comparing a new medication order against a patient's existing medication list called?

Formulary review
Medication reconciliation (Correct answer)
Drug utilization review
Prior authorization

Correct answer: Medication reconciliation

Medication reconciliation ensures the patient's medication list is accurate and complete during care transitions.

Question 16: What information is NOT required on a valid prescription?

Patient's name
Drug name and strength
Date written
Prescriber's DEA number (for non-controlled drugs) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Prescriber's DEA number (for non-controlled drugs)

A prescriber's DEA number is only required on prescriptions for controlled substances, not for non-controlled medications.

Question 17: What does the Latin abbreviation 'QID' mean?

Three times a day
Every 12 hours
Every other day
Four times a day (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Four times a day

QID (quater in die) means four times a day, typically every 6 hours.

Question 18: What does 'UD' mean on a hospital medication order?

Unspecified Drug
Unit Dose (Correct answer)
Undiluted
Usual Dose

Correct answer: Unit Dose

UD (Unit Dose) refers to the system in which each dose is individually packaged and labeled for a single administration.

Question 19: What does the term 'aseptic technique' refer to in sterile compounding?

Autoclaving all compounding supplies
Procedures that prevent contamination of sterile preparations with microorganisms (Correct answer)
Cleaning the pharmacy counter before compounding
Using only sterile equipment for non-sterile preparations

Correct answer: Procedures that prevent contamination of sterile preparations with microorganisms

Aseptic technique encompasses all practices used to prevent microbial contamination during the preparation of sterile products.

Question 20: What is a 'chargeback' in pharmaceutical distribution?

A refund given to a patient for a recalled medication
A penalty assessed by insurance for incorrect billing
A fee charged to patients for late prescription pickup
A credit issued by a manufacturer to a wholesaler when the wholesaler sells to a contracted customer at a discounted price (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A credit issued by a manufacturer to a wholesaler when the wholesaler sells to a contracted customer at a discounted price

A chargeback is a manufacturer reimbursement to a wholesaler for the difference between the wholesaler's cost and the contracted lower price charged to eligible customers.

Question 21: Which error type occurs when a patient receives a drug intended for a different patient?

Wrong patient error (Correct answer)
Wrong dose error
Omission error
Wrong route error

Correct answer: Wrong patient error

A wrong patient error is a medication error in which the correct drug is dispensed but to the wrong individual.

Question 22: What does the abbreviation 'PRN' mean?

By mouth
As needed (Correct answer)
Before meals
At bedtime

Correct answer: As needed

PRN (pro re nata) means 'as needed,' indicating the medication should be taken only when a specific condition (e.g., pain) warrants it.

Question 23: What type of environment is required for preparing sterile IV admixtures?

Standard pharmacy counter with gloves
Standard clean room
Laminar airflow workbench (LAFW) or ISO 5 environment (Correct answer)
Negative pressure room only

Correct answer: Laminar airflow workbench (LAFW) or ISO 5 environment

Sterile IV preparations must be prepared in an ISO 5 (Class 100) environment using a laminar airflow workbench to minimize contamination.

Question 24: Insulin glargine is classified as which type of insulin?

Rapid-acting
Long-acting (basal) (Correct answer)
Intermediate-acting (NPH)
Short-acting (regular)

Correct answer: Long-acting (basal)

Insulin glargine (Lantus, Basaglar) is a long-acting basal insulin with a duration of approximately 24 hours.

Question 25: Which organization runs the MedWatch program for adverse drug event reporting?

ISMP
ASHP
DEA
FDA (Correct answer)

Correct answer: FDA

The FDA's MedWatch program is the safety information and adverse event reporting system for healthcare professionals and patients.

Question 26: Which federal agency oversees the Medicare and Medicaid programs?

DEA
FDA
CMS (Correct answer)
OIG

Correct answer: CMS

CMS (Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services) administers the Medicare and Medicaid programs in the US.

Question 27: What is the term for the time it takes for a drug's plasma concentration to decrease by 50%?

Half-life (Correct answer)
Peak time
Duration of action
Onset of action

Correct answer: Half-life

The half-life (t½) is the time required for the drug concentration in the plasma to decrease by half, determining dosing intervals.

Question 28: What is the generic name for Synthroid?

Propylthiouracil
Methimazole
Levothyroxine (Correct answer)
Liothyronine

Correct answer: Levothyroxine

Synthroid's generic name is levothyroxine, used to treat hypothyroidism by replacing T4.

Question 29: What is the mechanism of action of NSAIDs?

Stimulate serotonin receptors
Inhibit COX enzymes to reduce prostaglandin synthesis (Correct answer)
Block opioid receptors
Block histamine H2 receptors

Correct answer: Inhibit COX enzymes to reduce prostaglandin synthesis

NSAIDs work by inhibiting cyclooxygenase (COX-1 and COX-2) enzymes, reducing the production of prostaglandins that cause pain and inflammation.

Question 30: What is the maximum number of refills allowed for a Schedule III controlled substance?

3
0
12
5 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 5

Schedule III and IV controlled substances may be refilled a maximum of 5 times within 6 months of the original prescription date.

Question 31: What is the purpose of the NDC number on a drug package?

Uniquely identify the drug manufacturer, product, and package size (Correct answer)
Identify the pharmacy dispensing the drug
Indicate the drug's DEA schedule
Show the drug's expiration date

Correct answer: Uniquely identify the drug manufacturer, product, and package size

The NDC (National Drug Code) is a unique 10- or 11-digit number identifying the labeler, product, and package size of a drug.

Question 32: What is the brand name of omeprazole?

Prilosec (Correct answer)
Protonix
Prevacid
Nexium

Correct answer: Prilosec

Omeprazole is marketed under the brand name Prilosec as a proton pump inhibitor.

Question 33: Amoxicillin is classified as which type of antibiotic?

Cephalosporin
Fluoroquinolone
Macrolide
Penicillin (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Penicillin

Amoxicillin is a broad-spectrum aminopenicillin antibiotic that inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis.

Question 34: Which of the following is a potential side effect of long-term corticosteroid use?

Hyperkalemia
Osteoporosis (Correct answer)
Hypothyroidism
Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: Osteoporosis

Long-term corticosteroid use can cause osteoporosis by inhibiting osteoblast activity and increasing calcium excretion.

Question 35: Which drug recall class indicates the most serious risk, including situations that can cause serious adverse health consequences or death?

Class I (Correct answer)
Class II
Class III
Class IV

Correct answer: Class I

Class I recall is the most serious, involving products that could cause serious health consequences or death if used.

Question 36: An order requires 250 mg of a drug from a stock solution of 50 mg/5 mL. How many mL are needed?

10 mL
25 mL (Correct answer)
5 mL
50 mL

Correct answer: 25 mL

50 mg/5 mL = 10 mg/mL; 250 mg ÷ 10 mg/mL = 25 mL needed.

Question 37: The Orange Book is used to identify:

Drug interactions
Therapeutic equivalents (Correct answer)
Orphan drug designations
Controlled substance schedules

Correct answer: Therapeutic equivalents

The FDA's Orange Book (Approved Drug Products with Therapeutic Equivalence Evaluations) identifies drugs rated as therapeutically equivalent to innovator products.

Question 38: What is the primary purpose of conducting a periodic physical inventory count in a pharmacy?

To reconcile actual stock on hand with perpetual inventory records and identify discrepancies (Correct answer)
To determine which medications should be added to the formulary
To satisfy DEA requirements for all medications
To calculate the pharmacy's daily revenue

Correct answer: To reconcile actual stock on hand with perpetual inventory records and identify discrepancies

Physical inventory counts verify that the actual quantity on hand matches recorded inventory levels, helping identify theft, waste, expired product, or data entry errors.

Question 39: What does the term 'look-alike, sound-alike' (LASA) drugs refer to?

Drugs in the same therapeutic class
Drugs with identical dosage forms
Generic and brand name pairs
Drugs confused due to similar names or packaging (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Drugs confused due to similar names or packaging

LASA drugs are medications that can be confused with each other because their names look or sound similar, a major cause of medication errors.

Question 40: Which drug is a proton pump inhibitor (PPI)?

Famotidine
Pantoprazole (Correct answer)
Sucralfate
Ranitidine

Correct answer: Pantoprazole

Pantoprazole (Protonix) irreversibly inhibits the gastric proton pump to reduce acid secretion.

Question 41: A patient brings in a prescription for 30 tablets with 3 refills. What is the total quantity authorized?

60 tablets
30 tablets
90 tablets
120 tablets (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 120 tablets

The original fill (30 tablets) plus 3 refills (3 × 30 = 90) equals 120 tablets total authorized.

Question 42: When using dimensional analysis to convert 2.5 kg to grams, the answer is:

25 g
250 g
2500 g (Correct answer)
25,000 g

Correct answer: 2500 g

2.5 kg × 1,000 g/kg = 2,500 g.

Question 43: Which storage condition is required for most vaccines?

Cool and dark (59–68°F)
Room temperature (68–77°F)
Refrigerated (36–46°F) (Correct answer)
Frozen (−4°F)

Correct answer: Refrigerated (36–46°F)

Most vaccines must be stored at 36–46°F (2–8°C) in a refrigerator to maintain potency and efficacy.

Question 44: What is the purpose of auxiliary labels on prescription bottles?

To replace the main label
To provide additional safety warnings or instructions (Correct answer)
To confirm the pharmacist's name
To indicate insurance coverage

Correct answer: To provide additional safety warnings or instructions

Auxiliary labels (e.g., 'Take with food,' 'May cause drowsiness') provide supplemental safety information beyond the main prescription label.

Question 45: Which of the following is an example of a pharmacist performing a prospective drug utilization review (DUR)?

Reporting adverse events to the FDA
Checking for drug-drug interactions before dispensing (Correct answer)
Reviewing dispensing records for billing errors
Auditing past prescriptions for compliance

Correct answer: Checking for drug-drug interactions before dispensing

Prospective DUR occurs before dispensing and involves checking for interactions, allergies, and therapeutic duplications.

Question 46: What is the primary adverse effect that limits the use of aminoglycoside antibiotics?

Pulmonary fibrosis
Hepatotoxicity
Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity (Correct answer)
Bone marrow suppression

Correct answer: Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity

Aminoglycosides (gentamicin, tobramycin) carry significant risk of nephrotoxicity (kidney damage) and ototoxicity (hearing loss), requiring level monitoring.

Question 47: What is the main therapeutic use of digoxin?

Hypertension treatment
Cholesterol reduction
Heart failure and atrial fibrillation (Correct answer)
Anticoagulation

Correct answer: Heart failure and atrial fibrillation

Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside used to improve myocardial contractility in heart failure and control ventricular rate in atrial fibrillation.

Question 48: A pharmacist can dispense a Schedule II drug in an emergency without a written prescription for up to how many days' supply?

3 days
7 days
5 days
72-hour supply (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 72-hour supply

In a bona fide emergency, a pharmacist may dispense a Schedule II drug based on an oral prescription sufficient to treat the patient for 72 hours.

Question 49: Which quality assurance check helps verify that compounded preparations are prepared correctly?

Prospective DUR
Final product verification (Correct answer)
Drug utilization review
Adverse event reporting

Correct answer: Final product verification

Final product verification is the pharmacist's check that a compounded preparation matches the formula, quantity, and appearance specified.

Question 50: How long must pharmacies keep Schedule II prescription records?

7 years
5 years
2 years (Correct answer)
1 year

Correct answer: 2 years

Federal law requires Schedule II controlled substance records to be maintained for a minimum of 2 years.

Question 51: Which class of drugs is commonly associated with causing a dry cough as a side effect?

Calcium channel blockers
Beta-blockers
ACE inhibitors (Correct answer)
ARBs

Correct answer: ACE inhibitors

ACE inhibitors cause accumulation of bradykinin in the lungs, leading to a persistent dry cough in up to 15–20% of patients.

Question 52: Which USP chapter governs sterile compounding standards?

USP <800>
USP <797> (Correct answer)
USP <795>
USP <1160>

Correct answer: USP <797>

USP <797> provides standards for sterile compounding including beyond-use dating, environmental monitoring, and cleanroom requirements.

Question 53: What does 'adjudication' mean in the context of pharmacy billing?

The process of compounding a non-sterile preparation
The pharmacist's review of a prescription for clinical appropriateness
The DEA's review of controlled substance prescriptions
The electronic process of submitting a claim to insurance and receiving payment determination (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The electronic process of submitting a claim to insurance and receiving payment determination

Adjudication is the real-time electronic process where the pharmacy submits a claim and the insurance plan returns a payment approval or rejection.

Question 54: Which drug class does metformin belong to?

Biguanide (Correct answer)
Sulfonylurea
DPP-4 inhibitor
SGLT-2 inhibitor

Correct answer: Biguanide

Metformin is a biguanide used as a first-line oral antidiabetic agent.

Question 55: Which electrolyte imbalance is a common side effect of loop diuretics like furosemide?

Hypokalemia (Correct answer)
Hypercalcemia
Hyperkalemia
Hypernatremia

Correct answer: Hypokalemia

Loop diuretics cause increased urinary excretion of potassium, leading to hypokalemia (low blood potassium levels).

Question 56: Which drug class does sertraline belong to?

SNRI
MAOI
TCA
SSRI (Correct answer)

Correct answer: SSRI

Sertraline (Zoloft) is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used for depression and anxiety.

Question 57: Which of the following is an example of a 'near miss' in pharmacy?

A drug is dispensed to the wrong patient
A prescription is filled with the wrong strength
A patient is harmed by the wrong drug
An error is caught before reaching the patient (Correct answer)

Correct answer: An error is caught before reaching the patient

A near miss is an error or unsafe situation that was caught before causing harm to the patient.

Question 58: What does 'NKA' mean in a patient's allergy history?

No Known Antibiotics
Not Known to Allergy team
No Known Allergies (Correct answer)
No Known Adverse reactions

Correct answer: No Known Allergies

NKA stands for 'No Known Allergies,' indicating the patient has no documented drug or environmental allergies.

Question 59: Which drug interaction occurs between warfarin and vitamin K?

Antagonistic — vitamin K reduces warfarin's effectiveness (Correct answer)
Potentiation — vitamin K increases INR
Synergistic — increases anticoagulation
Additive — equal effects

Correct answer: Antagonistic — vitamin K reduces warfarin's effectiveness

Vitamin K antagonizes warfarin by providing the substrate warfarin works to deplete, reducing anticoagulant effect and lowering INR.

Question 60: Which federal law established the current drug scheduling system in the US?

Durham-Humphrey Amendment
Kefauver-Harris Amendment
OBRA '90
Controlled Substances Act (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Controlled Substances Act

The Controlled Substances Act of 1970 established the five-schedule classification system for controlled drugs.

Question 61: What is the primary indication for furosemide?

Osteoporosis
Hyperlipidemia
Type 2 diabetes
Edema and hypertension (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Edema and hypertension

Furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic primarily used to reduce fluid retention in edema and treat hypertension.

Question 62: Which government program provides prescription drug coverage primarily for individuals aged 65 and older?

TRICARE
CHIP
Medicare Part D (Correct answer)
Medicaid

Correct answer: Medicare Part D

Medicare Part D is the federal prescription drug benefit designed for Medicare beneficiaries, primarily those aged 65 and older.

Question 63: Which type of drug interaction can significantly reduce the effectiveness of a medication?

Synergistic interaction
Antagonistic interaction (Correct answer)
Potentiation
Additive interaction

Correct answer: Antagonistic interaction

An antagonistic interaction occurs when one drug reduces or blocks the effect of another, potentially making the medication less effective.

Question 64: What strategy does 'Tall Man Lettering' help prevent?

Wrong route errors
Look-alike/sound-alike (LASA) drug mix-ups (Correct answer)
Allergy-related errors
Calculation errors

Correct answer: Look-alike/sound-alike (LASA) drug mix-ups

Tall Man Lettering uses mixed case (e.g., hydrALAZINE vs. hydrOXYzine) to visually differentiate LASA drug names.

Question 65: What is the mechanism of action of benzodiazepines?

Block dopamine receptors
Block NMDA receptors
Inhibit serotonin reuptake
Enhance GABA activity in the CNS (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Enhance GABA activity in the CNS

Benzodiazepines enhance the effect of GABA (gamma-aminobutyric acid) at GABA-A receptors, producing sedation and anxiolysis.

Question 66: Which antibiotic class should be avoided in children under 8 years old due to tooth discoloration?

Macrolides
Penicillins
Tetracyclines (Correct answer)
Cephalosporins

Correct answer: Tetracyclines

Tetracyclines bind to calcium in developing teeth and bone, causing permanent yellow-brown discoloration in children under 8.

Question 67: What is the purpose of a drug recall?

To remove a product from the market due to safety, quality, or labeling issues (Correct answer)
To update the drug's label
To change the drug's schedule
To lower the drug's price

Correct answer: To remove a product from the market due to safety, quality, or labeling issues

A drug recall removes a product from the market or from patients' hands because it is defective, contaminated, mislabeled, or poses a health risk.

Question 68: How many schedules exist in the federal controlled substance classification system?

6
3
5 (Correct answer)
4

Correct answer: 5

The Controlled Substances Act establishes five schedules (I–V) based on abuse potential, accepted medical use, and safety.

Question 69: The Poison Prevention Packaging Act requires child-resistant packaging for most:

OTC drugs only
Prescription drugs only
Both prescription and most OTC drugs (Correct answer)
All products

Correct answer: Both prescription and most OTC drugs

The Poison Prevention Packaging Act (PPPA) requires child-resistant containers for most prescription drugs and many OTC products.

Question 70: Which drug is a Schedule II controlled substance?

Carisoprodol
Alprazolam
Oxycodone (Correct answer)
Tramadol

Correct answer: Oxycodone

Oxycodone is a Schedule II opioid with high abuse potential and accepted medical use.

Question 71: Which term describes a list of drugs known to cause serious harm if used incorrectly?

LASA Drug List
Tall Man Lettering List
Black Box Warning List
High-Alert Medications List (Correct answer)

Correct answer: High-Alert Medications List

The ISMP High-Alert Medications List identifies drugs that bear a heightened risk of causing significant patient harm when misused.

Question 72: What does the abbreviation 'ISMP' stand for?

Institute for Safe Medication Practices (Correct answer)
International Society of Medical Pharmacists
Integrated Safety Monitoring Program
Institute for Standard Medical Protocols

Correct answer: Institute for Safe Medication Practices

ISMP (Institute for Safe Medication Practices) is a nonprofit organization dedicated to preventing medication errors.

Question 73: A prescription for a controlled substance must include the prescriber's DEA number. A valid DEA number begins with which two characters?

Two letters where the second is the first letter of the prescriber's last name (Correct answer)
AB or BC
Two numbers
A letter and a special character

Correct answer: Two letters where the second is the first letter of the prescriber's last name

A DEA number has two letters followed by seven digits; the second letter is always the first letter of the registrant's last name.

Question 74: What does 'BUD' stand for in pharmacy compounding?

Beyond-Use Date (Correct answer)
Best Use Date
Baseline Unit Dose
Basic Utilization Data

Correct answer: Beyond-Use Date

BUD (Beyond-Use Date) is the date after which a compounded preparation should not be used, assigned based on stability data and USP guidelines.

Question 75: Which amendment to the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act distinguished legend from OTC drugs?

Kefauver-Harris Amendment
DSHEA
Durham-Humphrey Amendment (Correct answer)
Drug Price Competition Act

Correct answer: Durham-Humphrey Amendment

The Durham-Humphrey Amendment of 1951 defined which drugs require a prescription (legend drugs) and which can be sold OTC.

Question 76: Under HIPAA, a minimum necessary standard requires that disclosure of PHI be limited to:

All patient records
Information older than 10 years
Only what is needed for the purpose (Correct answer)
What the prescriber requests

Correct answer: Only what is needed for the purpose

The HIPAA minimum necessary standard requires limiting PHI disclosure to the least amount needed to accomplish the intended purpose.

Question 77: What does 'DAW 0' indicate on a prescription claim?

Substitution not allowed by law
Patient requests brand
No product selection indicated — generic may be dispensed (Correct answer)
Brand only, no substitution

Correct answer: No product selection indicated — generic may be dispensed

DAW 0 means no product selection is indicated, allowing the pharmacist to substitute a generic equivalent.

Question 78: What does HIPAA primarily protect?

Patient health information (Correct answer)
Pharmacy licensing
Drug pricing
Drug manufacturing standards

Correct answer: Patient health information

HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act) establishes national standards for protecting patients' private health information.

Question 79: A black box warning is the FDA's strongest warning about:

Drug interactions only
Serious adverse effects or contraindications (Correct answer)
Drug storage requirements
Required dosage adjustments

Correct answer: Serious adverse effects or contraindications

A black box warning (boxed warning) alerts prescribers to serious or life-threatening risks associated with a medication.

Question 80: What is the primary purpose of a medication reconciliation process?

Billing accuracy
Ensure formulary compliance
Prevent medication errors during care transitions (Correct answer)
Verify drug pricing

Correct answer: Prevent medication errors during care transitions

Medication reconciliation compares a patient's medication list across care settings to prevent omissions, duplications, and harmful interactions.

Question 81: A vial contains 500 mg/10 mL. How many mL are needed to prepare a 250 mg dose?

7.5 mL
5 mL (Correct answer)
2.5 mL
10 mL

Correct answer: 5 mL

500 mg/10 mL = 50 mg/mL; 250 mg ÷ 50 mg/mL = 5 mL needed.

Question 82: What does NDA stand for in the drug approval process?

Nonprescription Drug Amendment
New Drug Application (Correct answer)
New Drug Authorization
National Drug Administration

Correct answer: New Drug Application

An NDA (New Drug Application) is submitted to the FDA to request approval for a new drug product for sale in the US.

Question 83: Which of the following is an ACE inhibitor?

Valsartan
Lisinopril (Correct answer)
Diltiazem
Carvedilol

Correct answer: Lisinopril

Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that prevents conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II.

Question 84: A DEA Form 222 is required for ordering which type of drugs?

All prescription drugs
Schedule III–V only
Schedule II only (Correct answer)
All controlled substances

Correct answer: Schedule II only

DEA Form 222 (or the electronic CSOS equivalent) is required for ordering Schedule II controlled substances.

Question 85: What does 'DAW' stand for on a prescription, and what does DAW 1 indicate?

Drug Approval Waiver; the drug has prior authorization
Drug Availability Warning; the medication may be on shortage
Dispense As Written; the prescriber requires the brand-name drug (Correct answer)
Dispense Alternate Widely; generics are preferred

Correct answer: Dispense As Written; the prescriber requires the brand-name drug

DAW (Dispense As Written) codes indicate substitution instructions; DAW 1 means the prescriber specifically requires the brand-name product.

Question 86: What does the 'five rights' of medication administration include?

Right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, right time (Correct answer)
Right patient, right pharmacist, right drug, right time, right form
Right patient, right drug, right cost, right label, right storage
Right drug, right dose, right frequency, right prescriber, right patient

Correct answer: Right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, right time

The five rights are: right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, and right time — the foundation of safe medication administration.

Question 87: What does the abbreviation 'sig' mean on a prescription?

Scheduled injection guide
Supply interval guideline
Signature (label instructions) (Correct answer)
Strength in grams

Correct answer: Signature (label instructions)

The sig (from Latin signatura) is the prescriber's directions to the patient about how to take the medication.

Question 88: Which organization is responsible for scheduling controlled substances at the federal level?

CDC
DEA (Correct answer)
CMS
FDA

Correct answer: DEA

The DEA (Drug Enforcement Administration) is responsible for enforcing the Controlled Substances Act and scheduling drugs.

Question 89: Pharmacy technicians are required to report medication errors primarily to:

The prescribing physician only
The patient's insurance company
The supervising pharmacist (Correct answer)
The state governor's office

Correct answer: The supervising pharmacist

Technicians must immediately report medication errors to the supervising pharmacist, who will assess the clinical impact and take corrective action.

Question 90: What is the purpose of a DEA Form 106?

Order Schedule II drugs
Report theft or significant loss of controlled substances (Correct answer)
Register a new pharmacy
Transfer a Schedule II prescription

Correct answer: Report theft or significant loss of controlled substances

DEA Form 106 is used to report theft or significant loss of controlled substances to the DEA.

Pharmacy Technician Certification Exam

The PTCE certifies pharmacy technicians, assessing competency in medications, federal requirements, patient safety, and order entry and processing.

Questions

110 min

Time Limit

70%

To Pass

Checking for saved progress...

Exam Rules

You can skip questions and return to them later
Flag questions for review before submitting
No feedback shown until you submit the entire exam
Unanswered questions count as wrong — answer everything
10 pretest questions are mixed in and don't affect your score
Timer auto-submits when time runs out
Your progress is auto-saved every 30 seconds