PTCB Practice Test: Video 2 Answers (25 Questions) — Questions and Answers
Question 1: Insulin glargine is classified as which type of insulin?
- Rapid-acting
- Short-acting (regular)
- Intermediate-acting (NPH)
- Long-acting (basal) (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Long-acting (basal)
Insulin glargine (Lantus, Basaglar) is a long-acting basal insulin with a duration of approximately 24 hours.
Question 2: Which class of drugs is commonly associated with causing a dry cough as a side effect?
- ACE inhibitors (Correct answer)
- ARBs
- Beta-blockers
- Calcium channel blockers
Correct answer: ACE inhibitors
ACE inhibitors cause accumulation of bradykinin in the lungs, leading to a persistent dry cough in up to 15–20% of patients.
Question 3: Which drug interaction occurs between warfarin and vitamin K?
- Synergistic — increases anticoagulation
- Additive — equal effects
- Antagonistic — vitamin K reduces warfarin's effectiveness (Correct answer)
- Potentiation — vitamin K increases INR
Correct answer: Antagonistic — vitamin K reduces warfarin's effectiveness
Vitamin K antagonizes warfarin by providing the substrate warfarin works to deplete, reducing anticoagulant effect and lowering INR.
Question 4: What is the antidote for opioid overdose?
- Physostigmine
- Protamine sulfate
- Naloxone (Correct answer)
- Flumazenil
Correct answer: Naloxone
Naloxone (Narcan) is an opioid receptor antagonist that rapidly reverses opioid-induced respiratory depression.
Question 5: Which drug is used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepine overdose?
- Naloxone
- N-acetylcysteine
- Flumazenil (Correct answer)
- Physostigmine
Correct answer: Flumazenil
Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine receptor antagonist used to reverse benzodiazepine-induced sedation or overdose.
Question 6: What strategy does 'Tall Man Lettering' help prevent?
- Allergy-related errors
- Wrong route errors
- Look-alike/sound-alike (LASA) drug mix-ups (Correct answer)
- Calculation errors
Correct answer: Look-alike/sound-alike (LASA) drug mix-ups
Tall Man Lettering uses mixed case (e.g., hydrALAZINE vs. hydrOXYzine) to visually differentiate LASA drug names.
Question 7: Which error type occurs when a patient receives a drug intended for a different patient?
- Wrong patient error (Correct answer)
- Wrong dose error
- Wrong route error
- Omission error
Correct answer: Wrong patient error
A wrong patient error is a medication error in which the correct drug is dispensed but to the wrong individual.
Question 8: What does the abbreviation 'ISMP' stand for?
- Institute for Standard Medical Protocols
- Integrated Safety Monitoring Program
- International Society of Medical Pharmacists
- Institute for Safe Medication Practices (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Institute for Safe Medication Practices
ISMP (Institute for Safe Medication Practices) is a nonprofit organization dedicated to preventing medication errors.
Question 9: Which USP chapter governs sterile compounding standards?
- USP
- USP
- USP (Correct answer)
- USP
Correct answer: USP
USP provides standards for sterile compounding including beyond-use dating, environmental monitoring, and cleanroom requirements.
Question 10: Which storage condition is required for most vaccines?
- Cool and dark (59–68°F)
- Frozen (−4°F)
- Refrigerated (36–46°F) (Correct answer)
- Room temperature (68–77°F)
Correct answer: Refrigerated (36–46°F)
Most vaccines must be stored at 36–46°F (2–8°C) in a refrigerator to maintain potency and efficacy.
Question 11: How many schedules exist in the federal controlled substance classification system?
Correct answer: 5
The Controlled Substances Act establishes five schedules (I–V) based on abuse potential, accepted medical use, and safety.
Question 12: Under HIPAA, a minimum necessary standard requires that disclosure of PHI be limited to:
- Only what is needed for the purpose (Correct answer)
- What the prescriber requests
- All patient records
- Information older than 10 years
Correct answer: Only what is needed for the purpose
The HIPAA minimum necessary standard requires limiting PHI disclosure to the least amount needed to accomplish the intended purpose.
Question 13: What is the purpose of a DEA Form 106?
- Order Schedule II drugs
- Report theft or significant loss of controlled substances (Correct answer)
- Register a new pharmacy
- Transfer a Schedule II prescription
Correct answer: Report theft or significant loss of controlled substances
DEA Form 106 is used to report theft or significant loss of controlled substances to the DEA.
Question 14: What does HIPAA primarily protect?
- Drug manufacturing standards
- Drug pricing
- Patient health information (Correct answer)
- Pharmacy licensing
Correct answer: Patient health information
HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act) establishes national standards for protecting patients' private health information.
Question 15: Which organization is responsible for scheduling controlled substances at the federal level?
- DEA (Correct answer)
- CMS
- CDC
- FDA
Correct answer: DEA
The DEA (Drug Enforcement Administration) is responsible for enforcing the Controlled Substances Act and scheduling drugs.
Question 16: What does 'NKA' mean in a patient's allergy history?
- No Known Allergies (Correct answer)
- No Known Antibiotics
- Not Known to Allergy team
- No Known Adverse reactions
Correct answer: No Known Allergies
NKA stands for 'No Known Allergies,' indicating the patient has no documented drug or environmental allergies.
Question 17: What does 'DAW 0' indicate on a prescription claim?
- Substitution not allowed by law
- No product selection indicated — generic may be dispensed (Correct answer)
- Patient requests brand
- Brand only, no substitution
Correct answer: No product selection indicated — generic may be dispensed
DAW 0 means no product selection is indicated, allowing the pharmacist to substitute a generic equivalent.
Question 18: What does 'prior authorization' (PA) mean in pharmacy processing?
- Pharmacist verification of a prescription
- Patient consent for medication therapy
- Insurer approval required before a drug will be covered (Correct answer)
- A prescriber's DEA registration
Correct answer: Insurer approval required before a drug will be covered
Prior authorization requires the prescriber to obtain approval from the insurance plan before the drug will be covered for that patient.
Question 19: A patient brings in a prescription for 30 tablets with 3 refills. What is the total quantity authorized?
- 90 tablets
- 120 tablets (Correct answer)
- 30 tablets
- 60 tablets
Correct answer: 120 tablets
The original fill (30 tablets) plus 3 refills (3 × 30 = 90) equals 120 tablets total authorized.
Question 20: What does the Latin abbreviation 'QID' mean?
- Every other day
- Four times a day (Correct answer)
- Three times a day
- Every 12 hours
Correct answer: Four times a day
QID (quater in die) means four times a day, typically every 6 hours.
Question 21: Atorvastatin belongs to which drug class?
- HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor (Correct answer)
- Fibrate
- Niacin derivative
- Bile acid sequestrant
Correct answer: HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor
Atorvastatin is an HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor (statin) used to lower LDL cholesterol.
Question 22: Which drug class does sertraline belong to?
- MAOI
- SNRI
- TCA
- SSRI (Correct answer)
Correct answer: SSRI
Sertraline (Zoloft) is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used for depression and anxiety.
Question 23: Which of the following is a Schedule IV controlled substance?
- Morphine
- Hydrocodone
- Alprazolam (Correct answer)
- Codeine
Correct answer: Alprazolam
Alprazolam (Xanax) is a benzodiazepine classified as Schedule IV with lower abuse potential than Schedule III.
Question 24: What is the generic name for Synthroid?
- Levothyroxine (Correct answer)
- Methimazole
- Propylthiouracil
- Liothyronine
Correct answer: Levothyroxine
Synthroid's generic name is levothyroxine, used to treat hypothyroidism by replacing T4.
Question 25: Which drug is a Schedule II controlled substance?
- Tramadol
- Alprazolam
- Oxycodone (Correct answer)
- Carisoprodol
Correct answer: Oxycodone
Oxycodone is a Schedule II opioid with high abuse potential and accepted medical use.