PTCB Practice Test: Video 1 Answers (25 Questions) — Questions and Answers

Question 1: What is the mechanism of action of benzodiazepines?

Block dopamine receptors
Enhance GABA activity in the CNS (Correct answer)
Inhibit serotonin reuptake
Block NMDA receptors

Correct answer: Enhance GABA activity in the CNS

Benzodiazepines enhance the effect of GABA (gamma-aminobutyric acid) at GABA-A receptors, producing sedation and anxiolysis.

Question 2: What is the main therapeutic use of digoxin?

Anticoagulation
Heart failure and atrial fibrillation (Correct answer)
Cholesterol reduction
Hypertension treatment

Correct answer: Heart failure and atrial fibrillation

Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside used to improve myocardial contractility in heart failure and control ventricular rate in atrial fibrillation.

Question 3: Which of the following is a potential side effect of long-term corticosteroid use?

Osteoporosis (Correct answer)
Hyperkalemia
Hypoglycemia
Hypothyroidism

Correct answer: Osteoporosis

Long-term corticosteroid use can cause osteoporosis by inhibiting osteoblast activity and increasing calcium excretion.

Question 4: Which drug is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose?

Activated charcoal
Naloxone
Flumazenil
N-acetylcysteine (Correct answer)

Correct answer: N-acetylcysteine

N-acetylcysteine (Mucomyst, Acetadote) is the antidote for acetaminophen toxicity, replenishing glutathione stores to prevent liver damage.

Question 5: Patients taking MAOIs should avoid which food substance due to the risk of hypertensive crisis?

Gluten
Tyramine (Correct answer)
Calcium
Vitamin C

Correct answer: Tyramine

MAOIs inhibit the enzyme that breaks down tyramine; consuming tyramine-rich foods (aged cheeses, cured meats) can cause a dangerous hypertensive crisis.

Question 6: Pharmacy technicians are required to report medication errors primarily to:

The supervising pharmacist (Correct answer)
The prescribing physician only
The state governor's office
The patient's insurance company

Correct answer: The supervising pharmacist

Technicians must immediately report medication errors to the supervising pharmacist, who will assess the clinical impact and take corrective action.

Question 7: What is the primary purpose of a medication reconciliation process?

Billing accuracy
Ensure formulary compliance
Prevent medication errors during care transitions (Correct answer)
Verify drug pricing

Correct answer: Prevent medication errors during care transitions

Medication reconciliation compares a patient's medication list across care settings to prevent omissions, duplications, and harmful interactions.

Question 8: A black box warning is the FDA's strongest warning about:

Drug storage requirements
Drug interactions only
Serious adverse effects or contraindications (Correct answer)
Required dosage adjustments

Correct answer: Serious adverse effects or contraindications

A black box warning (boxed warning) alerts prescribers to serious or life-threatening risks associated with a medication.

Question 9: Which quality assurance check helps verify that compounded preparations are prepared correctly?

Drug utilization review
Prospective DUR
Adverse event reporting
Final product verification (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Final product verification

Final product verification is the pharmacist's check that a compounded preparation matches the formula, quantity, and appearance specified.

Question 10: What does 'BUD' stand for in pharmacy compounding?

Best Use Date
Beyond-Use Date (Correct answer)
Baseline Unit Dose
Basic Utilization Data

Correct answer: Beyond-Use Date

BUD (Beyond-Use Date) is the date after which a compounded preparation should not be used, assigned based on stability data and USP guidelines.

Question 11: What does NDA stand for in the drug approval process?

New Drug Application (Correct answer)
New Drug Authorization
National Drug Administration
Nonprescription Drug Amendment

Correct answer: New Drug Application

An NDA (New Drug Application) is submitted to the FDA to request approval for a new drug product for sale in the US.

Question 12: The Poison Prevention Packaging Act requires child-resistant packaging for most:

Both prescription and most OTC drugs (Correct answer)
OTC drugs only
All products
Prescription drugs only

Correct answer: Both prescription and most OTC drugs

The Poison Prevention Packaging Act (PPPA) requires child-resistant containers for most prescription drugs and many OTC products.

Question 13: Which federal law established the current drug scheduling system in the US?

Durham-Humphrey Amendment
Kefauver-Harris Amendment
OBRA '90
Controlled Substances Act (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Controlled Substances Act

The Controlled Substances Act of 1970 established the five-schedule classification system for controlled drugs.

Question 14: The Orange Book is used to identify:

Orphan drug designations
Therapeutic equivalents (Correct answer)
Drug interactions
Controlled substance schedules

Correct answer: Therapeutic equivalents

The FDA's Orange Book (Approved Drug Products with Therapeutic Equivalence Evaluations) identifies drugs rated as therapeutically equivalent to innovator products.

Question 15: Which federal agency oversees the Medicare and Medicaid programs?

FDA
OIG
DEA
CMS (Correct answer)

Correct answer: CMS

CMS (Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services) administers the Medicare and Medicaid programs in the US.

Question 16: What does the abbreviation 'PRN' mean?

As needed (Correct answer)
Before meals
By mouth
At bedtime

Correct answer: As needed

PRN (pro re nata) means 'as needed,' indicating the medication should be taken only when a specific condition (e.g., pain) warrants it.

Question 17: What does the abbreviation 'sig' mean on a prescription?

Supply interval guideline
Strength in grams
Scheduled injection guide
Signature (label instructions) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Signature (label instructions)

The sig (from Latin signatura) is the prescriber's directions to the patient about how to take the medication.

Question 18: What is the meaning of 'ii gtts AU TID' in a prescription?

2 drops in the right ear three times daily
2 tablets by mouth three times daily
2 drops in both ears three times daily (Correct answer)
2 drops in both eyes three times daily

Correct answer: 2 drops in both ears three times daily

AU = both ears, gtts = drops, TID = three times daily; so the sig means instill 2 drops in both ears three times daily.

Question 19: Which type of drug interaction can significantly reduce the effectiveness of a medication?

Additive interaction
Potentiation
Antagonistic interaction (Correct answer)
Synergistic interaction

Correct answer: Antagonistic interaction

An antagonistic interaction occurs when one drug reduces or blocks the effect of another, potentially making the medication less effective.

Question 20: What is an NPI number?

National Pharmacy Identifier
Non-Preferred Item code
National Provider Identifier (Correct answer)
New Prescription Invoice

Correct answer: National Provider Identifier

An NPI (National Provider Identifier) is a unique 10-digit identification number for healthcare providers, required on all HIPAA transactions.

Question 21: What type of drug is gabapentin?

Opioid
Anticonvulsant (Correct answer)
Antidepressant
NSAID

Correct answer: Anticonvulsant

Gabapentin is an anticonvulsant also used for neuropathic pain and restless leg syndrome.

Question 22: Which of the following is a beta-blocker?

Amlodipine
Lisinopril
Metoprolol (Correct answer)
Losartan

Correct answer: Metoprolol

Metoprolol is a selective beta-1 adrenergic blocker used for hypertension and heart failure.

Question 23: Which of the following is an ACE inhibitor?

Valsartan
Carvedilol
Diltiazem
Lisinopril (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Lisinopril

Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that prevents conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II.

Question 24: Prednisone belongs to which drug class?

Antihistamine
Corticosteroid (Correct answer)
Opioid
NSAID

Correct answer: Corticosteroid

Prednisone is a synthetic corticosteroid with anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive properties.

Question 25: Which drug is a calcium channel blocker?

Diltiazem (Correct answer)
Furosemide
Atenolol
Spironolactone

Correct answer: Diltiazem

Diltiazem is a non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker used for hypertension and arrhythmias.

PTCB Practice Test: Video 1 Answers (25 Questions)

What is the mechanism of action of benzodiazepines?

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