PHTLS Shock and Hemorrhage Control — Questions and Answers
Question 1: A trauma patient has a BP of 80/60 mmHg, HR of 128 bpm, and cool, clammy skin. Which class of hemorrhagic shock does this best represent?
- Class I
- Class II
- Class III (Correct answer)
- Class IV
Correct answer: Class III
Class III hemorrhagic shock involves 30–40% blood volume loss and presents with hypotension, tachycardia >120, and altered mental status.
Question 2: Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial intervention for a suspected pelvic fracture causing hemodynamic instability in the prehospital setting?
- Apply a pelvic binder or sheet wrap (Correct answer)
- Perform external cardiac compression
- Initiate IV fluid bolus of 2L normal saline
- Place the patient in Trendelenburg position
Correct answer: Apply a pelvic binder or sheet wrap
A pelvic binder or sheet wrap reduces pelvic volume and tamponades internal hemorrhage in unstable pelvic fractures.
Question 3: When using a windlass tourniquet on a lower extremity, how far proximal to the wound should it be placed?
- Directly over the wound
- 1–2 inches proximal to the wound
- 2–3 inches proximal to the wound (Correct answer)
- At the groin crease regardless of wound location
Correct answer: 2–3 inches proximal to the wound
PHTLS guidelines recommend placing a tourniquet 2–3 inches proximal to the wound to ensure adequate compression of the vessel.
Question 4: A patient in hemorrhagic shock has received 1L of blood products en route. On reassessment, BP is 88/60 and HR is 110. This response is best described as:
- Nonresponder
- Responder
- Transient responder (Correct answer)
- Delayed responder
Correct answer: Transient responder
A transient responder improves initially but then deteriorates, suggesting ongoing hemorrhage that may require surgical control.
Question 5: Which acid-base disturbance is most commonly seen in severe hemorrhagic shock?
- Metabolic alkalosis
- Respiratory alkalosis
- Metabolic acidosis (Correct answer)
- Respiratory acidosis
Correct answer: Metabolic acidosis
Anaerobic metabolism from inadequate tissue perfusion produces lactic acid, causing metabolic acidosis in hemorrhagic shock.
Question 6: In the PHTLS model, 'permissive hypotension' targets a systolic BP of approximately how much in penetrating trauma without TBI?
- 60–70 mmHg
- 80–90 mmHg (Correct answer)
- 100–110 mmHg
- 120 mmHg
Correct answer: 80–90 mmHg
Permissive hypotension targets a systolic BP of 80–90 mmHg to maintain cerebral perfusion while avoiding dilution of clotting factors and clot disruption.
Question 7: Which finding is the EARLIEST clinical indicator of hemorrhagic shock in an otherwise healthy adult?
- Hypotension
- Tachycardia (Correct answer)
- Altered mental status
- Decreased pulse pressure
Correct answer: Tachycardia
Tachycardia is the earliest compensatory response as the body attempts to maintain cardiac output despite falling blood volume.
Question 8: Tranexamic acid (TXA) is most effective when administered within what time frame after traumatic injury?
- Within 30 minutes
- Within 1 hour
- Within 3 hours (Correct answer)
- Within 6 hours
Correct answer: Within 3 hours
The CRASH-2 trial demonstrated TXA is most effective when given within 3 hours of injury; after this window it may increase mortality.
Question 9: A patient has an arterial bleed from the axilla that cannot be controlled with a standard tourniquet. What is the BEST hemorrhage control option?
- Pack the wound with hemostatic gauze and apply direct pressure (Correct answer)
- Apply a second tourniquet distally
- Elevate the extremity above the level of the heart
- Wrap the entire torso with an abdominal binder
Correct answer: Pack the wound with hemostatic gauze and apply direct pressure
Junctional wounds like the axilla cannot be controlled with a standard tourniquet, so wound packing with hemostatic gauze and sustained direct pressure is the appropriate technique.
Question 10: What is the primary mechanism by which hypothermia worsens hemorrhagic shock?
- It increases cardiac output
- It impairs coagulation enzyme function (Correct answer)
- It causes vasodilation
- It increases red blood cell production
Correct answer: It impairs coagulation enzyme function
Clotting enzymes are temperature-dependent; hypothermia slows their activity, impairing coagulation and worsening the lethal triad.
Question 11: Which component of Damage Control Resuscitation (DCR) directly addresses dilutional coagulopathy?
- Early surgical hemorrhage control
- High-ratio packed red blood cells to FFP (Correct answer)
- Large-volume crystalloid infusion
- Permissive normotension
Correct answer: High-ratio packed red blood cells to FFP
DCR uses a balanced 1:1:1 ratio of PRBCs to FFP to platelets to replace all lost blood components and prevent dilutional coagulopathy.
Question 12: A motorcyclist ejected at high speed has distended neck veins, absent breath sounds on the left, and hypotension. After needle decompression fails to improve vitals, what condition should you consider?
- Hemorrhagic shock from splenic laceration
- Cardiac tamponade (Correct answer)
- Massive hemothorax
- Neurogenic shock
Correct answer: Cardiac tamponade
Persistent hypotension with distended neck veins after ruling out tension pneumothorax suggests cardiac tamponade (Beck's triad), which requires pericardiocentesis or thoracotomy.
Question 13: In the context of PHTLS, the term 'lethal triad' refers to which combination of conditions?
- Hypotension, tachycardia, and altered mental status
- Hypothermia, acidosis, and coagulopathy (Correct answer)
- Hemorrhage, hypoxia, and hypovolemia
- Pain, hypoxia, and hyperthermia
Correct answer: Hypothermia, acidosis, and coagulopathy
The lethal triad of hypothermia, acidosis, and coagulopathy creates a vicious cycle that dramatically increases mortality in trauma patients.
Question 14: When packing a wound for junctional hemorrhage control, approximately how long should direct pressure be maintained after packing?
- 30 seconds
- 1 minute
- 3 minutes (Correct answer)
- 5 minutes
Correct answer: 3 minutes
PHTLS and TCCC guidelines recommend at least 3 minutes of direct pressure after wound packing to allow clot formation with hemostatic agents.
Question 15: A 45-year-old patient with blunt abdominal trauma presents with rigidity, guarding, and a BP of 90/70. Estimated blood loss is 1.5L. What is the PRIORITY prehospital action?
- Establish two large-bore IV lines and infuse 2L of NS
- Rapid transport to a trauma center with hemostatic resuscitation (Correct answer)
- Apply an abdominal binder and administer morphine for pain
- Place a Foley catheter to monitor urine output
Correct answer: Rapid transport to a trauma center with hemostatic resuscitation
Internal abdominal hemorrhage cannot be controlled prehospitally; rapid transport and hemostatic resuscitation are the priorities to minimize time to definitive surgical care.
Question 16: Which physiologic parameter is MOST reliable for detecting early compensated shock in a young, fit trauma patient?
- Systolic blood pressure
- Heart rate
- Shock index (HR/SBP) (Correct answer)
- Mean arterial pressure
Correct answer: Shock index (HR/SBP)
The shock index (HR divided by SBP) is more sensitive than either parameter alone in detecting early compensated shock, with values >1.0 indicating significant hemodynamic compromise.
Question 17: A patient has a tourniquet applied to the right thigh. How should time of application be documented?
- Verbally communicated to receiving hospital only
- Written directly on the tourniquet or patient's skin with the time (Correct answer)
- Entered in the patient care report at the end of transport
- Estimated based on arrival time at the ED
Correct answer: Written directly on the tourniquet or patient's skin with the time
The time of tourniquet application must be written directly on the tourniquet or patient's forehead/skin to prevent accidental removal and inform definitive care providers of ischemia duration.
Question 18: Which type of shock results from a mismatch between oxygen supply and demand due to cellular inability to utilize oxygen, despite adequate delivery?
- Hypovolemic shock
- Distributive shock
- Obstructive shock
- Cellular/metabolic shock (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Cellular/metabolic shock
Cellular or metabolic shock (e.g., from cyanide poisoning) occurs when cells cannot use delivered oxygen, leading to anaerobic metabolism despite normal or high oxygen supply.
Question 19: In neurogenic shock following spinal cord injury, which hemodynamic profile is MOST characteristic?
- High BP, low HR, cold extremities
- Low BP, tachycardia, diaphoresis
- Low BP, bradycardia, warm extremities (Correct answer)
- Low BP, bradycardia, cool extremities
Correct answer: Low BP, bradycardia, warm extremities
Neurogenic shock from sympathetic disruption causes vasodilation (warm extremities) and loss of cardiac acceleration (bradycardia) alongside hypotension.
Question 20: A PHTLS provider applies a Combat Application Tourniquet (CAT) to a bleeding arm. Upon reassessment 5 minutes later, the wound is still oozing significantly. What is the MOST appropriate next step?
- Remove the tourniquet and apply direct pressure instead
- Tighten the windlass until bleeding stops and recheck distal pulse (Correct answer)
- Apply a second tourniquet proximal to the first
- Pack the wound above the tourniquet with hemostatic gauze
Correct answer: Tighten the windlass until bleeding stops and recheck distal pulse
If a tourniquet is not controlling hemorrhage, it should be tightened further until bleeding stops, as an undertightened tourniquet provides inadequate occlusion and may worsen venous engorgement.
Question 21: What is the primary goal of administering blood products rather than crystalloids in hemorrhagic shock resuscitation?
- Lower the viscosity of blood to improve flow
- Restore oxygen-carrying capacity and coagulation factors simultaneously (Correct answer)
- Rapidly expand intravascular volume with minimal cost
- Prevent electrolyte imbalances from large-volume resuscitation
Correct answer: Restore oxygen-carrying capacity and coagulation factors simultaneously
Blood products restore both oxygen-carrying capacity (via RBCs) and coagulation factors (via FFP/platelets), addressing the root causes of hemorrhagic shock without the dilutional effects of crystalloids.
A trauma patient has a BP of 80/60 mmHg, HR of 128 bpm, and cool, clammy skin.
Which class of hemorrhagic shock does this best represent?
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