PHTLS Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield PHTLS facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. During the scene size-up of a multi-vehicle crash on a highway, which of the following components is essential for resource management? → Determining the total number of patients.
2. When assessing a trauma scene, which of the following best describes the principle of 'situational awareness'? → Continuously re-evaluating the scene for changing conditions and new threats.
3. According to PHTLS pre-test material, what is the correct management of an impaled object in the chest? → Stabilize the object in place and transport
4. What is the current PHTLS terminology for managing the spine of a trauma patient? → Spinal motion restriction
5. What does the PHTLS 7th Edition recommend regarding cervical spine immobilization in trauma patients? → Selective spinal immobilization based on clinical criteria
6. In an electrical burn patient, which systemic injury not visible on the skin surface must be assumed and monitored for? → Rhabdomyolysis and myoglobinuria causing renal failure
7. Which of the following is a primary goal of 'permissive hypotension' in the management of a trauma patient with suspected non-compressible torso hemorrhage? → To prevent clot dislodgement by avoiding aggressive fluid resuscitation.
8. What is the primary danger of applying ice directly to a burn wound? → It causes frostbite and worsens tissue injury while accelerating hypothermia
9. A PHTLS post-test asks: What is the primary danger of providing excessive positive pressure ventilation to a trauma patient? → It can decrease venous return and worsen hypotension
10. Which fracture pattern in a young child, when identified without a plausible mechanism, should raise concern for non-accidental trauma (NAT)? → Spiral fractures of the humerus in a non-ambulatory infant
11. What is the preferred device for transporting a trauma patient requiring spinal motion restriction? → Vacuum mattress or padded scoop stretcher transferred to ambulance stretcher
12. What thoracic injury should be suspected in a patient who was wearing a seatbelt and has anterior chest bruising with hypotension? → Blunt cardiac injury (myocardial contusion)
13. What is the hallmark physical finding of a tension pneumothorax? → Unilateral absent breath sounds with hypotension and jugular venous distention
14. A 4-year-old child has a respiratory rate of 40 breaths per minute following blunt chest trauma. How should you interpret this finding? → Abnormal and indicates respiratory distress
15. Which of the following is a primary goal in the prehospital management of a traumatic brain injury (TBI) to prevent or mitigate secondary brain injury? → Preventing episodes of hypoxia and hypotension
16. Which PHTLS concept describes the brief window of time during which definitive hemorrhage control and surgical intervention can prevent death from trauma? → The golden period
17. Secondary blast injury is caused by: → Fragmentation and shrapnel striking the body
18. When is a traction splint indicated in prehospital trauma care? → For isolated midshaft femur fractures without hip or knee involvement
19. In PHTLS, what does the term 'load and go' refer to? → Rapidly packaging a critical patient for immediate transport
20. Which of the following is the primary purpose of evaluating the Mechanism of Injury (MOI) during a trauma scene assessment? → To develop an index of suspicion for potential injuries.
21. What personal protective equipment does PHTLS recommend as minimum standard for trauma scene operations? → Gloves and eye protection at minimum, with additional PPE based on scene hazards
22. According to PHTLS, what is the significance of Battle's sign and raccoon eyes in a head trauma patient? → They suggest basilar skull fracture and may take hours to develop
23. What complication of spinal cord injury should PHTLS providers be prepared for during patient care? → Respiratory failure from loss of diaphragmatic or intercostal muscle function
24. How should a fracture near a joint be splinted differently from a midshaft long bone fracture? → Splint the joint in the position found, immobilizing the bones above and below
25. Which is the primary justification for keeping the trauma patient's airway open? → To prevent hypoxemia and hypercarbia
26. When using the pediatric assessment triangle (PAT), which three components are evaluated? → Appearance, work of breathing, circulation to skin
27. What is the most common cause of cardiac arrest in pediatric trauma patients? → Hypoxia secondary to respiratory failure
28. In the PHTLS 7th Edition, what is the recommended approach to fluid resuscitation in hemorrhagic shock? → Permissive hypotension with controlled fluid administration
29. Tertiary blast injury results from: → The patient being physically displaced and impacting a surface
30. For prehospital burn wound care, what is the recommended dressing approach for a large partial-thickness burn? → Cover with dry sterile dressings to reduce contamination and maintain warmth