PHTLS - Prehospital Trauma Life Support Special Trauma Considerations Questions and Answers

Question 1

An 82-year-old male who takes metoprolol for hypertension falls and complains of abdominal pain. His vital signs are BP 100/60 mmHg, HR 70 bpm, and RR 22. Why should the provider be concerned about this patient's heart rate?

Accepted Answer

The patient's beta-blocker medication may be masking tachycardia associated with hemorrhagic shock.

Answer

Geriatric patients often take medications like beta-blockers (e.g., metoprolol) that blunt the body's normal tachycardic response to hypovolemia. In a trauma patient with potential internal bleeding, a 'normal' heart rate can be a misleading sign that masks underlying shock.

Question 2

A 5-year-old child falls from a height. Initially, they are alert with a BP of 95/60 mmHg and HR of 130 bpm. Fifteen minutes later, the child suddenly becomes lethargic and their BP drops to 70/40 mmHg. This rapid deterioration is best explained by which pediatric physiological principle?

Accepted Answer

A child's cardiovascular system can compensate for significant volume loss until a critical point, after which it decompensates rapidly.

Answer

Children have very effective compensatory mechanisms, including intense vasoconstriction and tachycardia, which allow them to maintain a normal blood pressure despite losing up to 25% or more of their blood volume. However, once these mechanisms are exhausted, they experience a sudden and rapid cardiovascular collapse. Hypotension is a late and ominous sign of shock in children.

Question 3

You are treating a 30-year-old female who is 34 weeks pregnant and was involved in a motor vehicle collision. She is fully immobilized on a backboard. During transport, she becomes pale, lightheaded, and her BP drops to 88/50 mmHg. What is the MOST appropriate immediate intervention?

Accepted Answer

Manually displace the uterus to the patient's left side.

Answer

In a pregnant patient beyond 20 weeks gestation, the gravid uterus can compress the inferior vena cava when she is in the supine position, which significantly reduces venous return and cardiac output. This is known as supine hypotensive syndrome. The most critical intervention is to relieve this compression by manually displacing the uterus to the left or tilting the entire backboard 15-30 degrees to the left.

Question 4

Which of the following represents a significant challenge in the prehospital management of a trauma patient with morbid obesity?

Accepted Answer

Accurate assessment and intervention are often hindered by obscured anatomical landmarks.

Answer

Excess adipose tissue in morbidly obese patients can make prehospital assessment and management extremely difficult. It can obscure landmarks for needle decompression, make IV access challenging, and impede an accurate physical exam of the abdomen, pelvis, and chest. Airway management is also notoriously more difficult in this patient population.

Question 5

A 72-year-old male on warfarin (Coumadin) sustains a ground-level fall and strikes his head. His only complaint is a minor headache, his GCS is 15, and there are no external signs of trauma. What is the most critical consideration for this patient?

Accepted Answer

The risk of a significant intracranial hemorrhage is high, even with a minor mechanism of injury.

Answer

Patients taking anticoagulant medications like warfarin are at a significantly increased risk for life-threatening intracranial hemorrhage, even from seemingly minor trauma. A normal initial neurological exam does not rule out a developing bleed, which can progress rapidly. These patients require a high index of suspicion and urgent transport for definitive imaging and evaluation.

PHTLS - Prehospital Trauma Life Support Practice Test

PHTLS - Prehospital Trauma Life Support Practice Test

PHTLS - Prehospital Trauma Life Support Special Trauma Considerations Questions and Answers