Phlebotomy Practice Test: Video 1 Answers (25 Questions) — Questions and Answers

Question 1: Which tube color is used for blood bank (type and screen, crossmatch) testing?

Royal blue
Pink (EDTA) (Correct answer)
Yellow (ACD)
Tan

Correct answer: Pink (EDTA)

Pink top tubes contain EDTA and are specifically designated for blood bank testing to avoid confusion with other EDTA tubes, with special labeling requirements.

Question 2: What additive is found in a royal blue top tube used for trace element testing?

Sodium citrate
Sodium heparin
EDTA or no additive (K2EDTA or plain) (Correct answer)
Lithium heparin

Correct answer: EDTA or no additive (K2EDTA or plain)

Royal blue tubes contain either EDTA or no additive and are made with trace-element-free stoppers to prevent contamination.

Question 3: In the order of draw, where does the EDTA (lavender) tube fall relative to heparin tubes?

Before heparin tubes
After heparin tubes (Correct answer)
At the same position
Before light blue but after SST

Correct answer: After heparin tubes

EDTA tubes are drawn after heparin (green) tubes to prevent EDTA carryover from affecting coagulation or chemistry tests.

Question 4: How many times should a sodium citrate (light blue) tube be inverted after collection?

8–10 times
5–6 times (Correct answer)
3–4 times
15–20 times

Correct answer: 5–6 times

Light blue tubes should be inverted 3–4 times according to most manufacturers; however, CLSI and many references cite 3–4 gentle inversions to mix the anticoagulant without activating platelets.

Question 5: Which tube is collected FIRST in the venipuncture order of draw?

Serum separator tube (SST)
Blood culture bottles (Correct answer)
Sodium citrate light blue top
EDTA lavender top

Correct answer: Blood culture bottles

Blood culture bottles are always collected first to minimize contamination risk from skin flora.

Question 6: A patient has a latex allergy documented in their chart. Which item used during routine venipuncture must be substituted?

Standard gloves replaced with nitrile or vinyl gloves (Correct answer)
The evacuated tube system
The needle gauge selection
The antiseptic used for site preparation

Correct answer: Standard gloves replaced with nitrile or vinyl gloves

Standard examination gloves may contain latex; nitrile or vinyl gloves must be substituted for latex-allergic patients.

Question 7: Which laboratory test requires the specimen to be kept warm (37°C) during transport to the laboratory?

Complete blood count (CBC)
Basic metabolic panel (BMP)
Prothrombin time (PT)
Cold agglutinin titer (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Cold agglutinin titer

Cold agglutinins precipitate at low temperatures, so the specimen must be maintained at body temperature to prevent false results.

Question 8: A requisition slip lists a 'STAT' order. In a clinical laboratory context, STAT means:

Immediate processing — results needed urgently (Correct answer)
Standard turnaround time
Scheduled for the next routine run
Send to tertiary analysis testing

Correct answer: Immediate processing — results needed urgently

STAT (from Latin statim) signals that the specimen must be collected and results returned as quickly as possible.

Question 9: According to CLSI guidelines, which tube is drawn LAST in a multi-tube venipuncture order of draw?

Lavender top (EDTA)
Red or gold SST (serum separator)
Light-blue top (sodium citrate)
Gray-top (sodium fluoride/oxalate) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Gray-top (sodium fluoride/oxalate)

Per CLSI order of draw, gray-top tubes are collected last to prevent additive carryover from affecting other tests.

Question 10: How many continuing education units (CEUs) must NHA-certified phlebotomy technicians complete before renewing their certification?

10 CEUs (Correct answer)
15 CEUs
25 CEUs
20 CEUs

Correct answer: 10 CEUs

NHA CPT holders must complete 10 CEUs every two years to maintain their certification.

Question 11: What angle of needle insertion is recommended for standard adult venipuncture?

5–10 degrees
15–30 degrees (Correct answer)
45 degrees
60 degrees

Correct answer: 15–30 degrees

A 15–30 degree angle allows the needle to enter the vein cleanly without going through the back wall.

Question 12: A phlebotomist needs to collect a specimen from a patient with only one usable arm that has an IV line running. What is the BEST approach?

Turn off the IV for 2 minutes, then draw below the IV site (Correct answer)
Refuse to collect and notify the nurse
Draw from the IV catheter directly
Draw from above the IV site

Correct answer: Turn off the IV for 2 minutes, then draw below the IV site

Turning off the IV for at least 2 minutes and drawing distal to (below) the infusion site minimizes IV fluid dilution of the blood sample.

Question 13: What is the appropriate action if a patient's vein collapses during venipuncture with an evacuated tube?

Increase tourniquet pressure
Switch to a syringe or butterfly to reduce vacuum pressure (Correct answer)
Insert a larger gauge needle
Ask the patient to pump their fist harder

Correct answer: Switch to a syringe or butterfly to reduce vacuum pressure

Switching to a syringe or butterfly set allows the phlebotomist to control suction manually, preventing vein collapse from excessive vacuum.

Question 14: When performing venipuncture on a patient with small or fragile veins, which needle is most appropriate?

20-gauge straight needle
18-gauge straight needle
23-gauge butterfly needle (Correct answer)
21-gauge multi-sample needle

Correct answer: 23-gauge butterfly needle

A 23-gauge butterfly (winged infusion) set allows better control and flexibility for difficult or fragile veins.

Question 15: What is the PRIMARY reason to release the tourniquet before withdrawing the needle?

To prevent nerve damage
To prevent excessive bleeding and hematoma formation (Correct answer)
To reduce patient anxiety
To ensure complete tube filling

Correct answer: To prevent excessive bleeding and hematoma formation

Releasing the tourniquet before needle removal reduces venous back-pressure, minimizing the risk of hematoma at the puncture site.

Question 16: What is the AMT's primary credential for phlebotomists?

RMA
PBT(ASCP)
RPT (Correct answer)
CPT

Correct answer: RPT

The AMT awards the Registered Phlebotomy Technician (RPT) credential to qualified phlebotomists.

Question 17: The AMT RPT recertification requires:

Proof of 500 venipunctures annually
A letter of recommendation from a physician
Continuing education units (CEUs) on a defined renewal cycle (Correct answer)
Retaking the full examination every year

Correct answer: Continuing education units (CEUs) on a defined renewal cycle

AMT RPT holders must earn CEUs and pay renewal fees on the AMT's recertification cycle to maintain active credentialed status.

Question 18: What is the purpose of inverting collection tubes after drawing blood?

To activate clotting
To settle red cells to the bottom
To mix the additive thoroughly with blood (Correct answer)
To prevent hemolysis

Correct answer: To mix the additive thoroughly with blood

Gentle inversions ensure the tube additive (anticoagulant or clot activator) mixes completely with the blood sample.

Question 19: When a phlebotomist cannot locate a vein after two attempts, the BEST course of action is to:

Refuse to collect the specimen and send the patient home
Try a smaller gauge needle and attempt a third time
Ask a colleague or supervisor to attempt the draw (Correct answer)
Apply heat to the arm for 30 minutes and retry immediately

Correct answer: Ask a colleague or supervisor to attempt the draw

Most facilities limit each phlebotomist to two attempts; a third attempt should be made by a different qualified individual.

Question 20: Which specimen type is collected in a red top tube without a gel separator?

Plasma
Serum without additives (Correct answer)
Whole blood for CBC
Capillary blood gas

Correct answer: Serum without additives

Plain red top tubes have no additives, allowing blood to clot naturally and yield serum after centrifugation.

Question 21: Which type of isolation precaution is required for a patient diagnosed with active pulmonary tuberculosis?

Contact precautions
Droplet precautions
Reverse isolation
Airborne precautions (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Airborne precautions

Airborne precautions are required for TB because the bacteria are transmitted via tiny droplet nuclei that remain suspended in the air.

Question 22: What is the minimum number of patient identifiers required by The Joint Commission before performing a blood draw?

Four
Three
Two (Correct answer)
One

Correct answer: Two

The Joint Commission requires at least two patient identifiers (e.g., name and date of birth) to ensure accurate specimen labeling and patient safety.

Question 23: What is the correct order of donning (putting on) PPE before entering an isolation room?

Eye protection, gown, gloves, mask
Mask, gloves, gown, eye protection
Gown, mask, eye protection, gloves (Correct answer)
Gloves, gown, mask, eye protection

Correct answer: Gown, mask, eye protection, gloves

CDC guidelines specify gown first, then mask/respirator, then eye protection, then gloves last so gloves cover the gown cuffs.

Question 24: Which of the following is considered a 'reservoir' in the chain of infection?

The phlebotomist's ungloved hands
An infected patient's bloodstream (Correct answer)
A needle used for venipuncture
A susceptible host

Correct answer: An infected patient's bloodstream

A reservoir is the habitat where a pathogen lives and multiplies; an infected patient's bloodstream serves as a reservoir for blood-borne pathogens.

Question 25: Which class of fire extinguisher should be used on an electrical fire in the phlebotomy lab?

Class B
Class D
Class A
Class C (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Class C

Class C extinguishers are designed for electrical fires and use non-conductive agents that will not worsen the hazard.

Phlebotomy Practice Test: Video 1 Answers (25 Questions)

Which tube color is used for blood bank (type and screen, crossmatch) testing?

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