An 82-year-old female is brought to the trauma center after a ground-level fall. She is on warfarin for atrial fibrillation and metoprolol for hypertension. Her blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, heart rate is 80 bpm, and she is lethargic. What is the most appropriate interpretation of her vital signs?
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A
The patient is hemodynamically stable and can proceed to a non-urgent secondary survey.
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B
The vital signs are unreliable due to her age, and a lactate level should be sent immediately.
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C
The patient is likely in compensated shock, masked by the effects of her beta-blocker medication.
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D
Hypotension is not a concern unless the systolic blood pressure is below 90 mmHg.