OTC Orthopaedic Technologist Certified Patient Assessment and Management 3

Question 1

A patient presents with a suspected scaphoid fracture. X-rays are negative. The most appropriate clinical management is to:

Accepted Answer

Immobilize in a thumb spica splint and arrange further imaging

Answer

Scaphoid fractures are often radiographically occult initially; immobilization and follow-up MRI or CT are the standard of care to avoid missed diagnosis and avascular necrosis.

Question 2

During a McMurray test, a palpable click or clunk along the joint line with knee rotation indicates pathology of which structure?

Accepted Answer

Meniscus

Answer

A positive McMurray test—click or pain at the joint line with tibial rotation—is indicative of a meniscal tear.

Question 3

When assessing edema in a lower extremity following ankle fracture repair, the OT should document pitting edema using which standardized grading?

Accepted Answer

1+ (2 mm) through 4+ (8 mm) depth of pitting

Answer

The standard pitting edema scale grades indentation depth: 1+ (≤2 mm), 2+ (3–4 mm), 3+ (5–6 mm), and 4+ (7–8 mm).

Question 4

A patient in skeletal traction for a femur fracture develops pin site redness, warmth, and purulent drainage. The OT's priority action is to:

Accepted Answer

Notify the supervising physician and document findings

Answer

Signs of pin site infection require prompt physician notification; independent treatment or removal of traction hardware is outside OT scope and could cause harm.

Question 5

The Lachman test is used to assess the integrity of which ligament?

Accepted Answer

Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)

Answer

The Lachman test evaluates ACL integrity by assessing anterior tibial translation on the femur with the knee flexed at 20–30 degrees.

Orthopaedic Technologist Certified Test Practice Test

Orthopaedic Technologist Certified Test Practice Test

OTC Orthopaedic Technologist Certified Patient Assessment and Management 3