Orthopaedic Technologist Certified (OTC) Examination — Questions and Answers

Question 1: According to the principles of Standard Precautions, when should an Orthopaedic Technologist wear gloves?

Only during invasive procedures like suture removal.
When interacting with any patient, regardless of the task.
When anticipating contact with any blood, body fluids, or non-intact skin. (Correct answer)
Only when visible blood is present on the patient.

Correct answer: When anticipating contact with any blood, body fluids, or non-intact skin.

Standard Precautions are based on the principle that all blood, body fluids (except sweat), non-intact skin, and mucous membranes from all patients are potentially infectious. Therefore, gloves must be worn whenever there is a potential for contact with these substances, not just when contamination is visible.

Question 2: Which modification is recommended when applying skin traction to a geriatric patient with fragile skin?

Increasing traction weight to shorten the treatment duration
Doubling the foam boot padding to increase friction
Applying an adhesive elastic bandage directly to the skin
Using pre-padded or non-adhesive traction kits and reducing weight (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Using pre-padded or non-adhesive traction kits and reducing weight

Non-adhesive, pre-padded traction kits and reduced weights minimize shear and pressure forces on fragile geriatric skin, reducing the risk of skin tears.

Question 3: Which of the following correctly describes the purpose of a bone graft harvested from the iliac crest?

It replaces metallic implants in pediatric fractures
It provides osteogenic, osteoinductive, and osteoconductive properties to support healing (Correct answer)
It serves as a rigid internal fixation device
It is used exclusively as a spacer to maintain limb length

Correct answer: It provides osteogenic, osteoinductive, and osteoconductive properties to support healing

Autogenous iliac crest bone graft provides all three bone healing properties: osteogenic cells, osteoinductive growth factors, and an osteoconductive scaffold.

Question 4: If a patient's traction rope slips off the pulley, the PRIORITY action is to:

Place the patient in a splint until the rope is repaired next day
Increase the traction weight to compensate for lost force
Document the event and wait for the next scheduled assessment
Replace the rope on the pulley and verify alignment and weight (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Replace the rope on the pulley and verify alignment and weight

A displaced traction rope eliminates the therapeutic force, risking fracture displacement; it must be promptly replaced and the setup verified.

Question 5: A pneumatic tourniquet cuff pressure for an adult lower extremity procedure is typically set at:

100 mmHg above systolic blood pressure (Correct answer)
50 mmHg above systolic blood pressure
Equal to diastolic blood pressure
250 mmHg regardless of blood pressure

Correct answer: 100 mmHg above systolic blood pressure

Standard lower extremity tourniquet pressure is set at 100 mmHg above the patient's systolic blood pressure to ensure adequate occlusion without excessive tissue injury.

Question 6: Which test is specifically used to determine the danger of falls when the orthopaedic technologist evaluates an elderly patient's functional ability?

Instrumental Activities of Daily Living
Functional Ability Rating Scale
Timed Up and Go (TUG) (Correct answer)
Ktaz Activities of Daily Living (ADL) scale

Correct answer: Timed Up and Go (TUG)

The Timed Up and Go (TUG) test is a widely recognized and validated screening tool specifically designed to assess an elderly patient's functional mobility and risk of falls. It measures the time it takes for a patient to stand from a chair, walk three meters, turn, walk back, and sit down, providing a quick and reliable indicator of balance and gait impairment.

Question 7: The Milwaukee brace is a cervicothoracolumbosacral orthosis (CTLSO) primarily used to treat scoliosis curves with the apex at which vertebral level?

L3 or below
T8 or above (Correct answer)
T12-L1
L1-L2

Correct answer: T8 or above

The Milwaukee brace is indicated for high thoracic scoliosis with an apex at T8 or above, where the cervical superstructure provides necessary corrective forces.

Question 8: When assessing edema in a lower extremity following ankle fracture repair, the OT should document pitting edema using which standardized grading?

Circumferential measurement only
Grade 0 to Grade 3 by skin color change
Mild, moderate, or severe based on patient pain
1+ (2 mm) through 4+ (8 mm) depth of pitting (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 1+ (2 mm) through 4+ (8 mm) depth of pitting

The standard pitting edema scale grades indentation depth: 1+ (≤2 mm), 2+ (3–4 mm), 3+ (5–6 mm), and 4+ (7–8 mm).

Question 9: In the RICE protocol for acute soft tissue injuries, what does the letter 'E' stand for?

Exercise
Resistance exercises
Elevation (Correct answer)
External support

Correct answer: Elevation

RICE (Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation) is the standard initial management for acute soft tissue injuries, with elevation reducing swelling via gravity-assisted venous drainage.

Question 10: What is the primary purpose of wound debridement in orthopaedic wound care?

Promote scar formation
Apply topical antibiotics to the wound bed
Remove necrotic tissue and contamination to reduce infection risk (Correct answer)
Provide a moist wound environment

Correct answer: Remove necrotic tissue and contamination to reduce infection risk

Debridement removes devitalized tissue, foreign material, and bacterial burden from the wound to create a clean bed that supports healing.

Question 11: Which mnemonic is commonly used to remember the key components of neurovascular assessment in orthopaedic patients?

The 5 Ps: Pain, Pallor, Pulselessness, Paresthesia, Paralysis (Correct answer)
The 6 Ss: Swelling, Stiffness, Sensation, Spasm, Strength, Skin
The 4 Ds: Discoloration, Dysfunction, Drainage, Deformity
The 3 Cs: Circulation, Capillary refill, Color

Correct answer: The 5 Ps: Pain, Pallor, Pulselessness, Paresthesia, Paralysis

The 5 Ps (Pain, Pallor, Pulselessness, Paresthesia, Paralysis) are the classic signs used to assess neurovascular compromise in orthopaedic injuries.

Question 12: Which of the following best describes the function of the stockinette layer in lower extremity splinting?

Acts as the primary padding layer
Protects skin from direct contact with padding and splint material (Correct answer)
Provides rigid structural support to the splint
Prevents the patient from removing the splint

Correct answer: Protects skin from direct contact with padding and splint material

Stockinette is a soft tubular knit fabric applied first to protect the skin from padding materials and reduce irritation.

Question 13: An orthopaedic technologist is assessing a patient in a hip spica cast. Which finding requires the most urgent intervention?

Mild itching under the cast edges
Patient reporting the cast feels warm on day 2
Slight odor from the groin area
Cyanotic toes bilaterally with absent capillary refill (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Cyanotic toes bilaterally with absent capillary refill

Cyanosis with absent capillary refill indicates severe vascular compromise requiring immediate cast bivalving and emergency physician notification.

Question 14: A figure-of-eight brace is most commonly used for fractures of the:

Scapula
Clavicle (Correct answer)
Sternum
Humerus

Correct answer: Clavicle

Figure-of-eight braces retract the shoulders posteriorly to maintain alignment of midshaft clavicle fractures.

Question 15: When applying a posterior ankle splint, what is the correct foot position to maintain?

Plantar flexion at 30 degrees
Inversion with slight plantar flexion
Neutral position (90 degrees dorsiflexion) (Correct answer)
Full dorsiflexion

Correct answer: Neutral position (90 degrees dorsiflexion)

Neutral position (90-degree dorsiflexion) prevents equinus contracture and maintains proper tendon and joint alignment.

Question 16: When molding a plaster splint to the lower extremity, what part of the hand should the technologist primarily use to avoid creating pressure points?

The palm of the hand.
The knuckles.
The fingertips.
The side of the index finger. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The side of the index finger.

To ensure even pressure distribution and prevent indentations that can lead to pressure sores, the Orthopaedic Technologist should use the broad, flat surface of the palm and thenar eminence to mold the splint to the contours of the limb. Using fingertips or knuckles creates focal pressure points.

Question 17: Which of the following is a primary advantage of using a splint over a circumferential cast for an acute lower extremity fracture?

It provides more definitive immobilization.
It is more durable for weight-bearing.
It accommodates for soft tissue swelling. (Correct answer)
It requires less padding.

Correct answer: It accommodates for soft tissue swelling.

The main advantage of a splint in the acute setting is that it is non-circumferential, which allows for swelling that naturally occurs after an injury. This significantly reduces the risk of pressure-related complications like skin breakdown and compartment syndrome compared to a rigid, circumferential cast.

Question 18: A patient with an L4-L5 spondylolisthesis is prescribed a lumbosacral orthosis (LSO). Which motion does the LSO most effectively restrict?

Lateral trunk flexion
Axial rotation
Lumbar flexion and extension (Correct answer)
Hip abduction

Correct answer: Lumbar flexion and extension

LSOs are most effective at limiting sagittal plane motion (flexion and extension) at the lumbosacral junction.

Question 19: A patient is being assessed for a potential hip fracture after a fall. Which physical finding best suggests an intracapsular femoral neck fracture?

Shortened and externally rotated lower extremity with groin pain (Correct answer)
Valgus knee deformity with lateral hip pain
Normal limb position with isolated greater trochanter tenderness
Shortened and internally rotated extremity with thigh pain

Correct answer: Shortened and externally rotated lower extremity with groin pain

Intracapsular femoral neck fractures typically present with a shortened, externally rotated limb and groin pain due to muscle forces and loss of bony stability.

Question 20: Which padding technique is used inside a cast specifically to protect the fibular head from pressure injury?

Extra layers of Webril over the fibular head
Donut pad centered over the fibular head (Correct answer)
Uniform padding throughout
Heel relief pad only

Correct answer: Donut pad centered over the fibular head

A donut pad (ring pad) distributes pressure away from the prominent fibular head by surrounding it, preventing focal pressure and peroneal nerve injury.

Question 21: Which spinal orthosis provides the greatest restriction of cervical rotation?

Soft foam collar
Philadelphia collar
Sterno-occipital-mandibular immobilizer (SOMI)
Four-poster brace (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Four-poster brace

The four-poster brace provides superior restriction of all cervical motions including rotation due to its rigid anterior and posterior uprights.

Question 22: An Orthopaedic Technologist is checking a patient's external fixator. Which of the following signs at a pin site is the MOST definitive indicator of a localized infection requiring medical attention?

Clear, serous drainage upon cleaning.
Purulent drainage (pus) from the site. (Correct answer)
Tenting of the skin up the pin.
Minor redness immediately around the pin entry point.

Correct answer: Purulent drainage (pus) from the site.

While some redness, tenderness, and clear drainage can be part of the normal inflammatory response, the presence of purulent drainage (pus) is a classic and definitive sign of a bacterial infection that requires medical evaluation and likely treatment with antibiotics.

Question 23: Intrinsic-plus position for hand immobilization places the metacarpophalangeal joints in flexion and the interphalangeal joints in:

Full flexion
Slight flexion (10–15 degrees)
Hyperextension
Full extension (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Full extension

The intrinsic-plus (safe) position places MCP joints in 70–90 degrees of flexion and IP joints in full extension to prevent collateral ligament contracture.

Question 24: A patient with a hip fracture placed in Buck's skin traction should have the weight limited to what maximum?

5–10 lbs
15–20 lbs
2–5 lbs (Correct answer)
10–15 lbs

Correct answer: 2–5 lbs

Buck's traction uses skin adhesives or foam boot and is limited to 2–5 lbs (1–2 kg) to prevent skin breakdown and circulatory compromise.

Question 25: Anterior interosseous nerve syndrome is a branch of which nerve?

Musculocutaneous nerve
Ulnar nerve
Median nerve (Correct answer)
Radial nerve

Correct answer: Median nerve

The anterior interosseous nerve is a motor branch of the median nerve that innervates the FPL, FDP to the index and middle fingers, and pronator quadratus.

Question 26: An orthopaedic technologist is assessing a patient's gait post-femoral fracture repair. A Trendelenburg gait pattern indicates weakness of which muscle group?

Hip flexors (iliopsoas)
Hip abductors (gluteus medius) (Correct answer)
Ankle plantar flexors (gastrocnemius)
Knee extensors (quadriceps)

Correct answer: Hip abductors (gluteus medius)

A Trendelenburg gait occurs when the contralateral pelvis drops during single-leg stance, indicating weakness of the weight-bearing hip abductors.

Question 27: A surgeon requests a 'K-wire' during a percutaneous pinning procedure for a pediatric supracondylar humerus fracture. The OT should provide:

A threaded Steinmann pin
A cannulated screw guide wire
A flexible reamer wire
A smooth Kirschner wire of the surgeon's requested diameter loaded in a power drill (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A smooth Kirschner wire of the surgeon's requested diameter loaded in a power drill

K-wires (Kirschner wires) are smooth, small-diameter stainless steel wires that are driven percutaneously with a power drill to temporarily stabilize pediatric fractures.

Question 28: In a Salter-Harris Type II physeal fracture, the fracture line passes through which structures?

The physis and epiphysis
Only the epiphysis
The physis and metaphysis (Correct answer)
Only the physis

Correct answer: The physis and metaphysis

Salter-Harris Type II is the most common physeal fracture, with the fracture line extending through the growth plate (physis) and into the metaphysis.

Question 29: A Colles' fracture is best described as a:

Fracture of the ulnar styloid only
Distal radius fracture with dorsal angulation and radial shortening (Correct answer)
Distal radius fracture with volar angulation
Intra-articular fracture of the distal radius

Correct answer: Distal radius fracture with dorsal angulation and radial shortening

A Colles' fracture is a distal radius fracture with dorsal angulation, producing the classic 'dinner fork' deformity and often radial shortening.

Question 30: Which measurement is most critical for the OT to verify and document when applying a fiberglass cast after surgical fracture fixation?

Capillary refill, sensation, and motor function distal to the cast before and after application (Correct answer)
The color of the stockinette under the cast padding
Ambient room temperature at time of application
Cast weight compared to manufacturer specifications

Correct answer: Capillary refill, sensation, and motor function distal to the cast before and after application

Neurovascular status (capillary refill, sensation, and movement) distal to the cast must be assessed and documented before and after application to detect compartment syndrome or nerve compromise.

Question 31: During a patient interview, an elderly patient accompanied by a family member seems hesitant to describe the circumstances of their wrist injury, frequently looking at the family member before answering. What is the most appropriate approach for the Orthopaedic Technologist?

Document 'patient is a poor historian' and proceed with the physical exam.
Ask the family member to leave the room to ensure patient privacy.
Direct all questions to the family member to get the information quickly.
Continue the interview with both present, but rephrase questions in a non-judgmental and open-ended manner. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Continue the interview with both present, but rephrase questions in a non-judgmental and open-ended manner.

The primary goal is to obtain an accurate history in a safe and comfortable environment. Rephrasing questions in a non-threatening, open-ended way allows the patient to share information more freely. Asking the family member to leave may escalate a potentially sensitive situation, while ignoring the patient's hesitation could miss crucial information. Effective communication techniques are a key skill in patient assessment.

Question 32: In which scenario is a sugar tong splint most appropriately indicated?

Patellar stress fracture
Distal radius fracture with swelling (Correct answer)
Isolated metacarpal fracture
Stable proximal fibula fracture

Correct answer: Distal radius fracture with swelling

A sugar tong splint immobilizes the wrist and prevents forearm rotation, making it ideal for acute distal radius and ulna fractures when swelling precludes circumferential casting.

Question 33: When conducting a pain assessment using the SOCRATES mnemonic, the letter 'R' stands for:

Radiation (Correct answer)
Recurrence
Response to treatment
Rest pain

Correct answer: Radiation

In SOCRATES (Site, Onset, Character, Radiation, Associated symptoms, Time course, Exacerbating/relieving factors, Severity), R stands for Radiation of the pain.

Question 34: A patient returns for a cast check 48 hours after application and reports a burning sensation under the cast. The most appropriate initial action is to:

Elevate the extremity and recheck in 24 hours
Apply ice over the cast
Bivalve or remove the cast to inspect the skin (Correct answer)
Reassure the patient that discomfort is normal

Correct answer: Bivalve or remove the cast to inspect the skin

A burning sensation under a cast suggests skin breakdown or pressure injury and requires immediate cast removal or bivalving for inspection.

Question 35: The 'gravity stress test' radiograph is used to assess ligamentous stability of which joint?

Ankle mortise
Elbow (Correct answer)
Knee
Shoulder

Correct answer: Elbow

The gravity stress view of the elbow is used in suspected lateral condyle fractures in children to evaluate whether the fracture is stable or unstable.

Question 36: A Muenster cast differs from a standard long arm cast primarily because it:

Locks the elbow at 90 degrees with full forearm rotation restriction (Correct answer)
Extends only to just proximal to the elbow restricting pronation/supination less
Uses only fiberglass material
Includes finger immobilization

Correct answer: Locks the elbow at 90 degrees with full forearm rotation restriction

A Muenster cast extends above the elbow and contours tightly around the medial and lateral epicondyles, restricting forearm rotation while allowing limited elbow flexion.

Question 37: During a surgical case, the scrub technician announces a break in sterile technique. The OT's immediate responsibility is to:

Complete the current step before addressing the break to avoid disrupting workflow
Notify the surgeon only if the break occurred on the patient side of the drape
Apply additional sterile drapes over the contaminated area and continue
Stop the procedure, identify and correct the contamination, and replace any compromised items (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Stop the procedure, identify and correct the contamination, and replace any compromised items

Any break in sterile technique must be immediately identified, communicated to the team, and corrected by replacing contaminated items before the procedure continues.

Question 38: A patient with a suspected spinal injury needs to be moved from the floor onto a backboard. Which of the following is an essential principle of the log-rolling maneuver?

The rescuer maintaining manual in-line stabilization of the head is in command of the roll. (Correct answer)
The patient's arms should be crossed over their abdomen to keep them secure.
The rescuer at the feet is responsible for giving the command to roll.
The roll should be a segmented movement, starting with the shoulders then the hips.

Correct answer: The rescuer maintaining manual in-line stabilization of the head is in command of the roll.

During a log roll, the person at the patient's head is solely responsible for maintaining manual in-line stabilization of the cervical spine and giving the commands for each coordinated movement. This ensures the head, neck, and torso move as a single unit, preventing any twisting or flexion that could worsen a potential spinal cord injury. The commands do not come from the feet, the roll must be a unified (not segmented) motion, and arms are typically kept at the patient's sides.

Question 39: The posterior tibial pulse is most accurately palpated at which anatomical location?

Posterior to the medial malleolus (Correct answer)
In the popliteal fossa
Along the medial tibial border
Anterior to the lateral malleolus

Correct answer: Posterior to the medial malleolus

The posterior tibial pulse is found just posterior and inferior to the medial malleolus and is essential in assessing distal lower extremity perfusion.

Question 40: Intraoperative cell salvage (autotransfusion) during major orthopaedic surgery is contraindicated when:

The patient is over 65 years of age
The surgical field is contaminated with infection or malignant cells (Correct answer)
The patient has a known bleeding disorder
More than 500 mL of blood loss is anticipated

Correct answer: The surgical field is contaminated with infection or malignant cells

Cell salvage is contraindicated if the surgical field is contaminated by infection or tumor cells, as reinfusing this blood could spread sepsis or malignancy.

Question 41: Which sign indicates venous congestion rather than arterial compromise in a casted extremity?

Cyanosis and swelling of digits (Correct answer)
Absent distal pulse
Severe pain with passive extension
Pallor of the fingers

Correct answer: Cyanosis and swelling of digits

Cyanosis (bluish discoloration) combined with swelling suggests venous outflow obstruction rather than arterial insufficiency.

Question 42: How many layers of plaster are typically used for a lower extremity posterior splint slab to achieve adequate strength?

8–12 layers (Correct answer)
14–16 layers
4–6 layers
20+ layers

Correct answer: 8–12 layers

8–12 layers provide sufficient structural rigidity for lower extremity posterior splints while balancing weight and drying time.

Question 43: In assessing a geriatric patient for fall risk prior to mobilization post-hip fracture repair, the most validated single-item screen is:

Functional Reach Test
Berg Balance Scale
Romberg test
Timed Up and Go (TUG) test (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Timed Up and Go (TUG) test

The Timed Up and Go test is widely validated as a simple, reliable screen for fall risk in older adults and is easily performed at bedside.

Question 44: Which fracture pattern is most commonly associated with child abuse in pediatric patients?

Torus fracture
Classic metaphyseal lesion (bucket-handle fracture) (Correct answer)
Transverse mid-shaft fracture
Greenstick fracture

Correct answer: Classic metaphyseal lesion (bucket-handle fracture)

Classic metaphyseal lesions, also called corner or bucket-handle fractures, are highly specific for non-accidental trauma in infants and young children.

Question 45: A cast that becomes wet and begins to soften should be:

Dried with a heat gun set to high
Left to dry on its own over 48 hours
Replaced with a new cast after skin care (Correct answer)
Reinforced with additional layers of the same wet material

Correct answer: Replaced with a new cast after skin care

A wet, softened cast loses its structural integrity and must be removed, the skin assessed and cared for, and a new cast applied.

Question 46: Which traction type applies force directly through surgically implanted pins or wires into bone?

Buck's traction
Dunlop traction
Skeletal traction (Correct answer)
Russell traction

Correct answer: Skeletal traction

Skeletal traction uses pins or wires placed directly into bone to apply and maintain traction force, unlike skin traction which acts on soft tissue.

Question 47: Which type of fracture involves a break that does not penetrate the skin?

Pathologic fracture
Open fracture
Closed fracture (Correct answer)
Comminuted fracture

Correct answer: Closed fracture

A closed (simple) fracture is one where the bone breaks but the overlying skin remains intact.

Question 48: A patient presents with a suspected compartment syndrome. Which of the following is the MOST critical early sign?

Crepitus on palpation
Pain out of proportion to the injury (Correct answer)
Skin discoloration
Visible deformity

Correct answer: Pain out of proportion to the injury

Pain out of proportion to the injury, especially with passive stretch of muscles in the compartment, is the earliest and most reliable clinical sign of compartment syndrome.

Question 49: When applying Buck's traction, the limb should be maintained in what position?

Internal rotation with 30° abduction
Neutral alignment with slight elevation (Correct answer)
Full extension with no pillow support
External rotation with slight flexion

Correct answer: Neutral alignment with slight elevation

Buck's traction requires the limb in neutral alignment, typically with slight elevation to counteract swelling and maintain comfort.

Question 50: During cervical halter traction, the chin and occiput must bear weight equally primarily to:

Avoid temporomandibular joint (TMJ) stress and skin breakdown (Correct answer)
Prevent atlantoaxial instability
Maximize cervical distraction force
Ensure the patient's airway is unobstructed

Correct answer: Avoid temporomandibular joint (TMJ) stress and skin breakdown

Unequal weight distribution in cervical halter traction places excessive pressure on the TMJ and can cause skin breakdown over bony prominences.

Question 51: When using a cast saw to remove a fiberglass cast, the blade should be moved in which motion to avoid skin injury?

Continuous sliding motion along the cast length
Circular rotation around the limb
Diagonal sweeping strokes
Up-and-down oscillating plunge cuts (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Up-and-down oscillating plunge cuts

The oscillating saw blade should be used with up-and-down plunge cuts rather than dragging, which reduces heat buildup and risk of laceration.

Question 52: When a surgeon requests a 'lag screw technique' during fracture fixation, the OT should prepare:

A fully threaded cortical screw equal in length to the fracture gap
A drill bit matching the screw's outer diameter for the near cortex and inner diameter for the far cortex (Correct answer)
A cannulated screw over a guide wire only
A locking screw with a torque-limiting screwdriver

Correct answer: A drill bit matching the screw's outer diameter for the near cortex and inner diameter for the far cortex

A lag screw requires over-drilling the near cortex (gliding hole = outer diameter) and under-drilling the far cortex (pilot hole = inner diameter) to generate compression across the fracture.

Question 53: When performing a skin traction assessment, the OT notices skin blisters forming beneath the foam traction boot. The most appropriate action is to:

Do nothing unless the patient reports pain
Pad the blisters and continue traction at reduced weight
Remove the traction and notify the physician to reassess the treatment plan (Correct answer)
Pop the blisters, apply antibiotic ointment, and reapply traction

Correct answer: Remove the traction and notify the physician to reassess the treatment plan

Skin blisters indicate traction-related skin injury; traction must be discontinued and the physician notified to determine an alternative immobilization method.

Question 54: The Phalen's test is used to assess for which condition?

Trigger finger
Cubital tunnel syndrome
Carpal tunnel syndrome (Correct answer)
De Quervain's tenosynovitis

Correct answer: Carpal tunnel syndrome

Phalen's test reproduces carpal tunnel syndrome symptoms by maximally flexing the wrist for 60 seconds to increase pressure on the median nerve.

Question 55: An Orthopaedic Technologist is assisting in a total hip arthroplasty using a posterior approach. The surgeon places a retractor to expose the posterior acetabulum. The technologist must be aware that this maneuver places which of the following nerves at the greatest risk of injury?

Femoral nerve
Obturator nerve
Sciatic nerve (Correct answer)
Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve

Correct answer: Sciatic nerve

The sciatic nerve runs directly behind the short external rotators and posterior acetabulum, which are key structures in the posterior approach to the hip. Retractor placement in this area can directly compress or stretch the nerve, leading to injury.

Question 56: In pediatric patients under age 8, how is spinal board positioning modified to achieve neutral cervical alignment?

A bolster is placed under the knees
The head is elevated on a special headrest
Padding is placed under the thorax to offset the large occiput (Correct answer)
No modification needed

Correct answer: Padding is placed under the thorax to offset the large occiput

Children under 8 have disproportionately large heads, so thoracic padding raises the torso to prevent forced cervical flexion.

Question 57: When assessing a pediatric patient with a suspected supracondylar humerus fracture, which neurovascular structure is at greatest risk of injury?

Radial nerve and radial artery
Anterior interosseous nerve and brachial artery (Correct answer)
Median nerve and axillary artery
Ulnar nerve and ulnar artery

Correct answer: Anterior interosseous nerve and brachial artery

Supracondylar fractures in children most commonly injure the anterior interosseous nerve and brachial artery due to their proximity to the fracture site.

Question 58: Which pathogen is the most common cause of surgical site infections in orthopaedic procedures?

Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Escherichia coli
Streptococcus pyogenes
Staphylococcus aureus (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Staphylococcus aureus

Staphylococcus aureus, including methicillin-resistant strains (MRSA), is the most frequently isolated pathogen in orthopaedic surgical site infections.

Question 59: When setting up the back table for a shoulder rotator cuff repair, which instrument is essential for suture anchor placement?

Tap and drill set
Awl and mallet (Correct answer)
Bone hook
Rongeur

Correct answer: Awl and mallet

Suture anchors require an awl to create a pilot hole and a mallet to drive the anchor into bone during rotator cuff repair.

Question 60: An Esmarch bandage is used in orthopaedic surgery to:

Exsanguinate the extremity before tourniquet inflation (Correct answer)
Wrap instruments on the back table
Compress wound dressings after closure
Stabilize fractures post-operatively

Correct answer: Exsanguinate the extremity before tourniquet inflation

An Esmarch bandage wraps the limb distally to proximally to exsanguinate it before tourniquet inflation, creating a bloodless surgical field.

Question 61: An OT documents '3/5' on a manual muscle test for knee extension. This finding means the patient can:

Generate no visible contraction
Move through full range of motion against gravity but not against added resistance (Correct answer)
Move against moderate resistance
Move only with gravity eliminated

Correct answer: Move through full range of motion against gravity but not against added resistance

MRC grade 3/5 means the muscle can move the joint through full range of motion against gravity alone, with no additional resistance applied.

Question 62: When assisting during arthroscopic ACL reconstruction, the OT's role in graft preparation typically involves:

Cutting the graft to bone-length with a saw
Soaking the graft in antibiotic solution for a minimum of 60 minutes
Only labeling the graft specimen and sending it to pathology
Fashioning the tendon graft, whipstitching the ends, and sizing it on the graft preparation board (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Fashioning the tendon graft, whipstitching the ends, and sizing it on the graft preparation board

The OT prepares the tendon graft by trimming, whipstitching the ends for secure fixation, and sizing it through the appropriate tibial tunnel sizer on the back table.

Question 63: When documenting spinal orthosis use, which element is considered most legally and clinically important to record?

Wearing schedule, skin checks, and patient education provided (Correct answer)
Brand name of the brace
Patient-reported comfort score
Color and material of the brace

Correct answer: Wearing schedule, skin checks, and patient education provided

Documentation of wearing schedule, skin inspection, and patient education demonstrates appropriate care and compliance monitoring.

Question 64: The 'terrible triad' injury of the elbow consists of posterior elbow dislocation combined with fractures of which two structures?

Coronoid process and olecranon
Medial epicondyle and radial head
Lateral epicondyle and olecranon
Radial head and coronoid process (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Radial head and coronoid process

The terrible triad of the elbow is posterior dislocation combined with radial head fracture and coronoid process fracture, leading to significant instability.

Question 65: Edema management instructions for a patient with a newly applied upper extremity cast should include which primary recommendation?

Perform vigorous finger exercises only at bedtime
Elevate the extremity above the level of the heart (Correct answer)
Apply ice directly over the cast
Keep the extremity dependent to promote circulation

Correct answer: Elevate the extremity above the level of the heart

Elevating the extremity above the heart reduces hydrostatic pressure and promotes venous and lymphatic drainage, minimizing post-cast swelling.

Question 66: When measuring for a cervical collar, which dimension is most critical for determining proper collar height?

Chin-to-chest distance
Tragus-to-chin distance (Correct answer)
Head circumference
Neck circumference at the thyroid

Correct answer: Tragus-to-chin distance

The tragus-to-chin distance corresponds to the vertical height of the neck and determines the appropriate collar height to maintain neutral cervical alignment.

Question 67: A patient presents 3 weeks after cast application with a documented fracture that appears malaligned on X-ray. The MOST appropriate initial step is:

Apply a new cast immediately
Discharge the patient with instructions to follow up in 2 weeks
Attempt closed reduction and recast
Notify the supervising physician (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Notify the supervising physician

Fracture malalignment discovered during follow-up requires physician notification to determine whether reduction or surgical intervention is needed.

Question 68: Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of counter-traction?

To elevate the injured limb for edema control only
To provide an opposing force that prevents the patient from sliding toward the weights (Correct answer)
To correct rotational deformity independent of longitudinal pull
To apply a second traction force in the same direction as the primary traction

Correct answer: To provide an opposing force that prevents the patient from sliding toward the weights

Counter-traction is an equal and opposite force—usually the patient's own body weight—that resists the traction pull and maintains net force across the fracture site.

Question 69: When removing a cast from a child, the preferred technique to reduce anxiety includes:

Proceeding as quickly as possible without explanation
Demonstrating the saw on the parent's hand first (Correct answer)
Performing the procedure in a dimly lit room
Allowing the child to hold the cast saw briefly before use

Correct answer: Demonstrating the saw on the parent's hand first

Demonstrating the cast saw on the parent's hand shows the child the saw does not cut skin, effectively reducing fear and improving cooperation.

Question 70: Which component of a thoracic extension orthosis (Jewett brace) provides the posterior counter-pressure needed to limit thoracic flexion?

Lateral uprights
Posterior thoracic pad (Correct answer)
Anterior sternal pad
Pelvic band

Correct answer: Posterior thoracic pad

The posterior thoracic pad in a Jewett brace creates a three-point pressure system with the anterior sternal and suprapubic pads to prevent thoracic flexion.

Question 71: Which of the following is a critical component of patient and family education after the application of a cast?

Demonstrating how to properly use a wire hanger to scratch an itch under the cast.
Providing a detailed overview of the surgical procedure that necessitated the cast.
Guaranteeing a specific timeframe for cast removal.
Explaining the signs and symptoms of complications that require immediate medical attention. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Explaining the signs and symptoms of complications that require immediate medical attention.

Patient safety is paramount. Educating the patient and family on the warning signs of complications, such as excessive swelling, numbness, tingling, skin discoloration, or severe pain, is essential for early intervention and prevention of permanent damage. While other information is helpful, recognizing an emergency is the most critical aspect of cast care instructions.

Question 72: During a McMurray test, a palpable click or clunk along the joint line with knee rotation indicates pathology of which structure?

Medial collateral ligament
Patellar tendon
Anterior cruciate ligament
Meniscus (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Meniscus

A positive McMurray test—click or pain at the joint line with tibial rotation—is indicative of a meniscal tear.

Question 73: Following the removal of a long arm cast that was in place for 8 weeks, which of the following is considered a normal and expected finding?

Muscle atrophy and dry, scaly skin. (Correct answer)
Complete and immediate return to full range of motion.
A foul odor with purulent drainage from the skin.
Severe, pitting edema of the hand and fingers.

Correct answer: Muscle atrophy and dry, scaly skin.

After prolonged immobilization, disuse muscle atrophy (a decrease in muscle size) is expected. The skin underneath the cast has not exfoliated normally, resulting in a buildup of dead skin cells that appears dry and flaky. These are common and expected findings that resolve with gentle cleaning, moisturizing, and gradual return to activity.

Question 74: After applying a fiberglass cast, the orthopaedic technologist instructs the patient not to bear weight for how long until the cast reaches full strength?

24 hours
30 minutes
2 hours (Correct answer)
5 minutes

Correct answer: 2 hours

Fiberglass casts achieve handling strength quickly but require approximately 30 minutes to 2 hours to reach full weight-bearing strength.

Question 75: The primary goal of sterilization, as opposed to disinfection, is to destroy:

Prions and fungi only
All viruses but not bacterial spores
All microorganisms including bacterial spores (Correct answer)
Only vegetative bacteria

Correct answer: All microorganisms including bacterial spores

Sterilization eliminates all forms of microbial life including highly resistant bacterial endospores, which disinfection alone cannot achieve.

Question 76: Which skin complication commonly results from prolonged exposure to moisture under casts or dressings?

Keloid formation
Ecchymosis
Maceration (Correct answer)
Hypertrophic scarring

Correct answer: Maceration

Maceration occurs when skin is overexposed to moisture from perspiration or wound exudate, causing softening, breakdown, and increased susceptibility to infection.

Question 77: A patient with a confirmed MRSA wound infection is brought to the cast room. Which transmission-based precautions are required?

Droplet precautions
Airborne precautions
Reverse isolation
Contact precautions (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Contact precautions

MRSA is spread through direct and indirect contact, so contact precautions—including gloves and gown—are required when caring for infected patients.

Question 78: During post-operative assessment of a patient who underwent open reduction internal fixation (ORIF) of an ankle fracture, the OT notes absent dorsal pedis pulse but intact sensation and capillary refill. The most appropriate action is to:

Recheck the pulse in 30 minutes before reporting
Apply a warm compress to improve circulation
Reassure the patient as other signs are normal
Immediately report to the surgeon and document the finding (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Immediately report to the surgeon and document the finding

An absent pulse after ORIF is an urgent vascular finding that requires immediate surgeon notification regardless of other intact signs, as isolated arterial injury is possible.

Question 79: The Sarmiento functional fracture brace for humeral shaft fractures relies on which primary mechanism to maintain fracture alignment?

Soft tissue hydraulic compression and gravity-assisted alignment (Correct answer)
Rigid fixation of the shoulder and elbow joints
Traction via skeletal pins
Electromagnetic bone stimulation

Correct answer: Soft tissue hydraulic compression and gravity-assisted alignment

The Sarmiento humeral brace uses hydrostatic pressure from the surrounding soft tissue envelope combined with gravitational alignment to maintain fracture reduction without immobilizing the joints.

Question 80: The primary purpose of stockinette applied beneath a cast is to:

Prevent moisture from entering the cast
Reduce the weight of the cast
Protect the skin and provide a smooth inner surface (Correct answer)
Provide additional structural rigidity

Correct answer: Protect the skin and provide a smooth inner surface

Stockinette protects the skin from plaster or fiberglass abrasion and is folded back over the cast edges to create a smooth, padded border.

Question 81: When layering a wound dressing, which material should be placed in direct contact with the wound surface?

Compression bandage
Absorbent outer dressing
Non-adherent contact layer (Correct answer)
Secondary foam dressing

Correct answer: Non-adherent contact layer

A non-adherent contact layer (e.g., Adaptic, Telfa) placed directly on the wound prevents trauma during dressing changes and protects fragile granulating tissue.

Question 82: Following successful serial casting for congenital clubfoot, an infant is prescribed a brace consisting of shoes attached to a bar. What is the name of this orthosis, used to maintain correction and prevent relapse?

A Denis Browne Bar (Correct answer)
A Swedish Knee Cage
A Boston Brace
A Jewett Brace

Correct answer: A Denis Browne Bar

A Denis Browne Bar (or splint) is a foot abduction orthosis used to maintain the correction achieved through casting for conditions like clubfoot. It consists of a bar that connects to the patient's shoes, holding the feet in an externally rotated position to prevent the deformity from recurring.

Question 83: Which position places the knee in approximately 20–30 degrees of flexion and is recommended for a long leg posterior splint?

90 degrees of flexion
Slight flexion (20–30 degrees) (Correct answer)
Full extension
Hyperextension

Correct answer: Slight flexion (20–30 degrees)

A long leg posterior splint positions the knee in 20–30 degrees of flexion, which is the functional resting position and reduces tension on posterior structures.

Question 84: Which of the following best describes the purpose of a Material Safety Data Sheet (SDS) in an orthopaedic setting?

To record OSHA inspection findings
To track inventory levels of medical supplies
To document patient allergy information
To provide detailed hazard and handling information for chemical substances (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To provide detailed hazard and handling information for chemical substances

Safety Data Sheets (SDS) provide comprehensive information on chemical hazards, handling, storage, and emergency measures for workplace chemicals.

Question 85: Which fracture type is most commonly seen in pediatric patients due to incomplete bone ossification?

Greenstick (Correct answer)
Avulsion
Stress
Pathologic

Correct answer: Greenstick

Greenstick fractures occur in children because their incompletely ossified bones are more pliable, causing the bone to crack on one cortex without complete separation.

Question 86: Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to fiberglass casting (as opposed to plaster)?

Known allergy to isocyanate or fiberglass resin (Correct answer)
Pediatric patients under age 5
Fractures requiring more than 6 weeks of immobilization
Active fracture less than 24 hours old

Correct answer: Known allergy to isocyanate or fiberglass resin

A known allergy to the polyurethane resin or fiberglass components is an absolute contraindication; plaster is used as an alternative.

Question 87: A patient presents with a suspected scaphoid fracture. X-rays are negative. The most appropriate clinical management is to:

Immobilize in a thumb spica splint and arrange further imaging (Correct answer)
Apply a short arm cast and discharge
Discharge with analgesics and no follow-up
Order immediate surgical consultation without imaging

Correct answer: Immobilize in a thumb spica splint and arrange further imaging

Scaphoid fractures are often radiographically occult initially; immobilization and follow-up MRI or CT are the standard of care to avoid missed diagnosis and avascular necrosis.

Question 88: Which traction type applies a pulling force directly through a pin or wire inserted into bone?

Skeletal traction (Correct answer)
Balanced suspension
Skin traction
Buck's traction

Correct answer: Skeletal traction

Skeletal traction uses a pin, wire, or tong inserted into bone to apply a direct longitudinal pulling force for fracture reduction or immobilization.

Question 89: For traction to be effective, a counter-traction force must be established. In most forms of lower extremity traction, what typically provides the primary source of counter-traction?

Additional weights applied to the head of the bed
Manual pressure applied by the technologist
The patient's own body weight (Correct answer)
A fixed point on the traction frame itself

Correct answer: The patient's own body weight

Effective traction requires a pulling force (traction) and an opposing force (counter-traction). In many applications, such as Buck's or Russell's traction, the patient's own body weight provides the counter-traction. This is often enhanced by elevating the foot of the bed, which uses gravity to pull the body in the opposite direction of the traction weights.

Question 90: Which grading scale is most commonly used by orthopaedic technologists to document muscle strength during a manual muscle test?

Visual Analog Scale (VAS)
Lovett scale rated A–F
American Spinal Injury Association (ASIA) scale
Medical Research Council (MRC) 0–5 scale (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Medical Research Council (MRC) 0–5 scale

The MRC 0–5 scale is the standard clinical tool for grading muscle strength from no contraction (0) to full strength against resistance (5).

Question 91: A patient in a TLSO brace reports pressure sores over the iliac crests. What is the most appropriate initial intervention?

Apply topical antibiotic only
Discontinue the brace immediately
Adjust or pad the brace at the pressure points (Correct answer)
Switch to a soft lumbar corset

Correct answer: Adjust or pad the brace at the pressure points

Adjusting or adding padding at pressure points addresses the cause while maintaining spinal immobilization.

Question 92: Which pulse is assessed at the dorsum of the foot to evaluate vascular integrity of the lower extremity distal to a tibial fracture?

Posterior tibial pulse
Femoral pulse
Dorsalis pedis pulse (Correct answer)
Popliteal pulse

Correct answer: Dorsalis pedis pulse

The dorsalis pedis pulse, located on the dorsum of the foot between the first and second extensor tendons, is a primary distal pulse assessed after tibial fractures.

Question 93: Bryant's traction is contraindicated in children older than:

2 years (Correct answer)
5 years
3 years
1 year

Correct answer: 2 years

Bryant's traction is contraindicated in children over 2 years of age or weighing more than 12–14 kg due to risk of vascular compromise.

Question 94: An OT is performing a skin assessment before applying a cast to an elderly patient with diabetes. Which finding would be the greatest contraindication to cast application without specialist consultation?

Visible superficial veins
An open wound or ulceration at the planned cast site (Correct answer)
Slight hair loss on the extremity
Mild dry skin

Correct answer: An open wound or ulceration at the planned cast site

An open wound or ulceration under a cast creates a high risk for infection and tissue necrosis, requiring specialist input before casting.

Question 95: When assessing a patient for an orthopaedic injury, which part of the examination involves evaluating the skin for color, temperature, and integrity?

Palpation
Auscultation
Inspection (Correct answer)
Range of Motion

Correct answer: Inspection

Inspection is the visual examination of the patient. During the patient assessment, the technologist visually inspects the injured area for any abnormalities, including swelling, bruising, deformity, and changes in the skin's color, temperature (by feel, but observation of mottling/color is key), and integrity (cuts, abrasions).

Question 96: When assessing spinal orthosis fit, the practitioner checks for approximately how many finger-widths of clearance under the abdominal panel?

5+ finger-widths
3-4 finger-widths
1-2 finger-widths (Correct answer)
0 — no clearance; snug contact required

Correct answer: 1-2 finger-widths

One to two finger-widths of clearance ensures adequate abdominal support without impeding respiration or causing pressure injury.

Question 97: In a neurovascular assessment, 'paresthesia' refers to:

Abnormal sensations such as tingling, numbness, or burning (Correct answer)
Skin color changes indicating poor perfusion
Increased pain at the fracture site
Complete loss of motor function

Correct answer: Abnormal sensations such as tingling, numbness, or burning

Paresthesia describes abnormal nerve sensations including tingling, numbness, or burning, and is an early indicator of nerve compression or ischemia.

Question 98: When taking an orthopaedic patient history, which component of the OPQRST mnemonic addresses what makes the pain better or worse?

P – Provocation/Palliation (Correct answer)
O – Onset
T – Timing
Q – Quality

Correct answer: P – Provocation/Palliation

The P in OPQRST stands for Provocation and Palliation, asking what triggers or relieves the pain.

Question 99: Which principle explains why a three-point pressure system is effective in orthotic management of spinal deformities?

It uses electrical stimulation to activate paraspinal muscles
Two counter-forces oppose one primary corrective force to create moment correction (Correct answer)
It stretches ligamentous structures through distraction
It distributes load equally across all vertebral levels

Correct answer: Two counter-forces oppose one primary corrective force to create moment correction

The three-point system applies one primary corrective force at the apex of the deformity while two counter-forces above and below create a corrective bending moment.

Question 100: A patient is being prepared for cast removal. Which statement by the Orthopaedic Technologist is most appropriate to manage patient anxiety?

"Don't worry, this saw is designed not to cut skin, so you'll be fine."
"This will be very loud, but it is important to hold as still as possible so you don't get cut."
"We need to get this off quickly, so just try to relax."
"The cast saw vibrates to cut the hard material but is unlikely to harm your skin. It will be noisy and you will feel warmth and a tickling sensation." (Correct answer)

Correct answer: "The cast saw vibrates to cut the hard material but is unlikely to harm your skin. It will be noisy and you will feel warmth and a tickling sensation."

This statement provides accurate, reassuring information in a calm and professional manner. It explains what the patient can expect (vibration, noise, warmth) while also addressing their primary fear (being cut) in a way that builds confidence rather than causing more alarm. Effective communication is a key part of patient management.

Question 101: What temperature should the water be while casting with extra-quick-setting plaster?

room temperature
cold (Correct answer)
hot
warm

Correct answer: cold

The setting time of plaster of Paris is directly influenced by water temperature. Extra-quick-setting plaster is designed to set very rapidly, so using cold water helps to slow down the chemical reaction. This provides the orthopaedic technologist with a slightly longer and more manageable working time to mold and apply the cast accurately before it hardens completely, ensuring proper fit and alignment.

Question 102: Which instruction is MOST important to give a patient regarding cast hygiene?

Wrap the cast in plastic for showering without concern
Clean inside the cast with a damp cloth daily
Keep the cast dry at all times unless it is waterproof (Correct answer)
Use talcum powder freely to relieve itching

Correct answer: Keep the cast dry at all times unless it is waterproof

Keeping a conventional plaster or fiberglass cast dry prevents cast softening, skin maceration, and infection.

Question 103: Which of the following methods is required to achieve surgical sterilization of instruments, such as pin cutters, that will be used in an invasive procedure?

Washing with antiseptic soap and hot water.
Processing in an autoclave using steam under pressure. (Correct answer)
Wiping thoroughly with 70% isopropyl alcohol.
Soaking in a high-level disinfectant solution.

Correct answer: Processing in an autoclave using steam under pressure.

Sterilization is the process of eliminating all microorganisms, including bacterial spores. An autoclave, which uses steam under high pressure and temperature, is the standard and most reliable method for sterilizing surgical instruments. High-level disinfection kills most microorganisms but not necessarily all bacterial spores, making it insufficient for invasive surgical instruments.

Question 104: An Orthopaedic Technologist is removing a K-wire from a patient's finger in the clinic. After the wire is removed, what is the MOST appropriate immediate action for disposing of the contaminated wire?

Wrap it in gauze and place it in the regular trash can.
Hand it back to the physician to examine.
Wipe it with an alcohol pad and place it on the instrument tray.
Place it directly into a designated, puncture-resistant sharps container. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Place it directly into a designated, puncture-resistant sharps container.

Contaminated K-wires, needles, and scalpel blades are considered sharps and pose a risk for percutaneous injury. They must be disposed of immediately in a designated, puncture-resistant, appropriately labeled sharps container to prevent injury and transmission of bloodborne pathogens.

Question 105: Which gait pattern is used when a patient can bear partial weight on one extremity and uses two crutches?

Two-point gait
Three-point gait (Correct answer)
Four-point gait
Swing-through gait

Correct answer: Three-point gait

Three-point gait involves advancing both crutches together with the affected limb, then swinging the unaffected limb forward, used for partial or non-weight-bearing.

Question 106: Pelvic traction is most commonly applied for which condition?

Lumbar disc herniation with radiculopathy (Correct answer)
Unstable pelvic ring fractures
Femoral neck fractures
Acetabular fractures requiring reduction

Correct answer: Lumbar disc herniation with radiculopathy

Pelvic traction is a conservative treatment used for lumbar disc herniation or low back pain to distract lumbar vertebrae and reduce nerve root compression.

Question 107: When passing a sharp instrument, such as a #10 blade on a scalpel handle, to the surgeon, what is the MOST accepted safety practice?

Tapping the surgeon's hand with it to get their attention
Placing it firmly in a designated 'neutral zone' on the sterile field (Correct answer)
Holding it by the blade and offering the handle to the surgeon
Handing it to the surgeon with the blade pointed towards them for easy access

Correct answer: Placing it firmly in a designated 'neutral zone' on the sterile field

Using a hands-free transfer technique, such as placing the sharp instrument in a designated neutral zone (e.g., a small basin or magnetic mat), is the safest method. This prevents hand-to-hand transfer and minimizes the risk of sharps injuries for both the technologist and the surgeon.

Question 108: Which fracture results from repetitive microtrauma and is commonly seen in distance runners and military recruits?

Impacted
Pathologic
Greenstick
Stress (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Stress

Stress fractures result from cumulative repetitive loading that exceeds the bone's ability to remodel, commonly occurring in the metatarsals, tibia, and femoral neck.

Question 109: A patient on droplet precautions requires a cast change. The orthopaedic technologist must wear:

A surgical mask when within 3 feet and standard PPE as indicated (Correct answer)
No additional PPE beyond standard gloves
An N95 respirator and gown
A powered air-purifying respirator (PAPR)

Correct answer: A surgical mask when within 3 feet and standard PPE as indicated

Droplet precautions require a surgical mask when within 3 feet (1 meter) of the patient, in addition to gloves and any other PPE indicated by the procedure.

Question 110: A fracture line running perpendicular (at a right angle) to the long axis of the bone is best described as which type?

Oblique
Comminuted
Transverse (Correct answer)
Spiral

Correct answer: Transverse

A transverse fracture runs at approximately 90° to the long axis of the bone and is typically caused by direct bending force.

Question 111: Which dermatome assessment finding would suggest involvement of the L4 nerve root in a patient with lumbar spine pathology?

Decreased sensation over the anterior thigh
Decreased sensation over the lateral foot and small toe
Decreased sensation over the posterior thigh
Decreased sensation over the medial lower leg and great toe (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Decreased sensation over the medial lower leg and great toe

The L4 dermatome covers the medial lower leg and great toe; sensory changes in this distribution suggest L4 nerve root compression.

Question 112: Which complication is most specifically associated with prolonged halo vest use in elderly osteoporotic patients?

Dysphagia from collar extension
Pin site infection
Pin loosening due to poor bone density (Correct answer)
Pressure injury at the sternum

Correct answer: Pin loosening due to poor bone density

Osteoporotic bone cannot resist pin torque adequately, leading to early loosening and loss of fixation.

Question 113: The Lachman test is used to assess the integrity of which ligament?

Lateral collateral ligament (LCL)
Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)
Medial collateral ligament (MCL)
Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)

The Lachman test evaluates ACL integrity by assessing anterior tibial translation on the femur with the knee flexed at 20–30 degrees.

Question 114: A patient with a freshly applied long arm cast develops pain that worsens with passive extension of the fingers. This most likely indicates:

Developing compartment syndrome (Correct answer)
Cast too loose requiring reinforcement
Normal post-casting discomfort
Radial nerve palsy

Correct answer: Developing compartment syndrome

Pain with passive stretch of the muscles in a casted compartment is a hallmark sign of developing compartment syndrome and requires immediate evaluation.

Question 115: When assisting with a total knee arthroplasty, the OT should handle trial implants by:

Handling only non-articular surfaces and maintaining sterility (Correct answer)
Touching only the articular surfaces to check smoothness
Removing them from sterile packaging with bare hands for speed
Soaking them in saline before passing to the surgeon

Correct answer: Handling only non-articular surfaces and maintaining sterility

Trial implants must remain sterile and their articular surfaces must not be contaminated; handle only non-articular areas with sterile gloves.

Question 116: Which of the following BEST describes a Salter-Harris Type II fracture?

Fracture through the physis and metaphysis (Correct answer)
Fracture through the epiphysis into the joint
Fracture through the physis and epiphysis
Fracture through the physis only

Correct answer: Fracture through the physis and metaphysis

Salter-Harris Type II fractures cross through the physis and extend into the metaphysis, making them the most common physeal fracture type.

Question 117: When troubleshooting ineffective traction, which factor should be assessed FIRST?

Whether the fracture has healed sufficiently to discontinue traction
The integrity and alignment of the entire traction setup including ropes, pulleys, and weights (Correct answer)
Whether the patient requires stronger analgesics
The patient's nutritional status and serum calcium level

Correct answer: The integrity and alignment of the entire traction setup including ropes, pulleys, and weights

Equipment integrity—ropes not fraying, pulleys rotating freely, weights hanging freely without touching the floor—must be confirmed before assuming a clinical cause for ineffectiveness.

Question 118: A patient presents with point tenderness over the anatomical snuffbox after a fall on an outstretched hand. Which bone should be suspected fractured?

Scaphoid (Correct answer)
Lunate
Trapezium
Radius

Correct answer: Scaphoid

The anatomical snuffbox is bounded by the extensor pollicis tendons and overlies the scaphoid; point tenderness there is a hallmark sign of scaphoid fracture.

Question 119: Which agency regulates the safe disposal of regulated medical waste (biohazardous waste) in the United States?

CDC
OSHA and state environmental agencies (Correct answer)
The Joint Commission
FDA

Correct answer: OSHA and state environmental agencies

Medical waste disposal is regulated by OSHA's Bloodborne Pathogens Standard and individual state environmental/health agencies.

Question 120: The RACE acronym used in fire safety stands for:

Report, Assess, Control, Exit
Remove, Activate, Contain, Extinguish
Rescue, Alarm, Confine, Extinguish/Evacuate (Correct answer)
Run, Alert, Call, Evacuate

Correct answer: Rescue, Alarm, Confine, Extinguish/Evacuate

RACE stands for Rescue patients in danger, Alarm by activating the fire alarm, Confine the fire by closing doors, and Extinguish/Evacuate as appropriate.

Question 121: When a patient's cast becomes saturated with blood, the orthopaedic technologist should treat the blood as:

Non-infectious if the patient has no known bloodborne diseases
A minor inconvenience requiring simple cleanup
Potentially infectious material requiring standard precautions (Correct answer)
Infectious only if it contacts mucous membranes

Correct answer: Potentially infectious material requiring standard precautions

Standard precautions require treating all blood and body fluids as potentially infectious regardless of the patient's known disease status.

Question 122: A 15-year-old athlete presents with localized pain, swelling, and tenderness over the tibial tubercle. They report the pain is worse after running and jumping. This presentation is most consistent with which of the following conditions?

Patellar tendonitis
Tibial stress fracture
Compartment syndrome
Osgood-Schlatter disease (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Osgood-Schlatter disease

Osgood-Schlatter disease is an inflammation of the area just below the knee where the tendon from the kneecap (patellar tendon) attaches to the shinbone (tibia). It is a common cause of knee pain in growing adolescents, particularly those who participate in sports involving running and jumping. The symptoms described are classic for this condition.

Question 123: The hip and repair patient is at danger because of the fracture bed position.

pressure to genitalia (Correct answer)
diminished lung capacity
back strain
sliding and shearing

Correct answer: pressure to genitalia

Patients with hip fractures often require specific bed positioning, such as maintaining leg abduction with pillows or specialized devices, to ensure proper alignment and healing. This positioning can inadvertently create sustained pressure on the perineal area or genitalia, increasing the risk of skin breakdown, discomfort, or pressure injuries in this sensitive region.

Question 124: When documenting capillary refill time in a post-fracture assessment, a normal result in adults is:

Less than 2 seconds (Correct answer)
4–6 seconds
2–4 seconds
Less than 5 seconds

Correct answer: Less than 2 seconds

Normal capillary refill time in adults is less than 2 seconds; values of 2 seconds or greater may indicate circulatory compromise.

Question 125: A patient's cast has developed a foul odor and the patient reports fever. These findings most likely indicate:

Excessive perspiration only
Infection beneath the cast (Correct answer)
Normal cast curing process
Cast material degradation

Correct answer: Infection beneath the cast

Foul odor combined with fever are classic signs of infection under a cast, requiring urgent cast removal and wound assessment.

Question 126: The radial nerve is at greatest risk of injury with fractures of which part of the humerus?

Greater tuberosity
Medial epicondyle
Surgical neck
Midshaft (spiral fracture) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Midshaft (spiral fracture)

The radial nerve courses around the posterior aspect of the humeral midshaft in the radial groove, making it vulnerable in spiral midshaft fractures.

Question 127: Prolonged immobilization of a patient on a rigid long spine board is MOST associated with an increased risk of which of the following complications?

Deep vein thrombosis
Hypertension
Improved respiratory function
Pressure ulcer formation (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Pressure ulcer formation

The hard, unforgiving surface of a long spine board creates significant pressure over bony prominences like the sacrum, scapulae, and occiput. Prolonged time on the board can restrict blood flow to the skin and underlying tissues, leading to ischemia and the formation of pressure ulcers (pressure injuries). Immobilization can also restrict respiration, not improve it. While DVT is a risk of general immobility, pressure ulcers are the most direct and well-documented complication of the backboard itself.

Question 128: To monitor for foot drop in a patient in lower extremity traction, the technologist assesses:

Grip strength of the ipsilateral hand
Ability to dorsiflex the foot against resistance (Correct answer)
Patellar reflex on the affected side
Sensation over the medial thigh

Correct answer: Ability to dorsiflex the foot against resistance

Foot drop results from peroneal nerve injury; assessment of dorsiflexion strength is the primary functional test for this complication.

Question 129: When educating a patient about cast care, which instruction regarding moisture is correct?

Plaster casts can get wet if dried with a hair dryer
Both plaster and standard fiberglass casts are fully waterproof
Moisture only affects the outer shell, not the structural integrity
Plaster casts must be kept dry; fiberglass casts may be waterproof if lined with Gore-Tex (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Plaster casts must be kept dry; fiberglass casts may be waterproof if lined with Gore-Tex

Plaster casts are weakened by moisture, while fiberglass casts with a waterproof liner (e.g., Gore-Tex padding) can safely get wet.

Question 130: When passing a scalpel to the surgeon during an orthopaedic procedure, the OT should hand it with the blade:

Pointing away from both individuals in a neutral zone
Resting flat on a sterile towel for the surgeon to pick up (Correct answer)
Pointing toward the surgeon's palm
Pointing upward to allow visual confirmation

Correct answer: Resting flat on a sterile towel for the surgeon to pick up

The safest scalpel-passing technique uses a neutral zone (kidney basin or sterile towel) to avoid sharps injuries to either party.

Question 131: A patient with a short leg cast reports numbness over the dorsum of the foot and inability to dorsiflex the ankle. Which nerve is most likely compressed?

Posterior tibial nerve
Common peroneal nerve (Correct answer)
Sural nerve
Saphenous nerve

Correct answer: Common peroneal nerve

The common peroneal nerve wraps around the fibular head and is vulnerable to compression there, causing foot drop and dorsal foot numbness.

Question 132: A fracture occurring through bone that has been weakened by a pre-existing condition such as cancer or osteoporosis is classified as which type?

Avulsion fracture
Fatigue fracture
Pathologic fracture (Correct answer)
Stress fracture

Correct answer: Pathologic fracture

A pathologic fracture occurs through diseased or structurally weakened bone and can result from minimal or no trauma.

Question 133: Which component of a traction setup is responsible for redirecting the line of pull?

Spreader bar
Pulley (Correct answer)
Footplate
Thomas splint

Correct answer: Pulley

Pulleys redirect the line of pull so the traction force can be applied at the correct angle.

Question 134: During neurovascular assessment of a patient in a long arm cast, the OT notes the patient cannot extend their wrist or fingers. Which nerve is most likely compromised?

Musculocutaneous nerve
Median nerve
Radial nerve (Correct answer)
Ulnar nerve

Correct answer: Radial nerve

The radial nerve controls wrist and finger extension; compression at the lateral humerus or within a tight cast can produce this deficit.

Question 135: When assessing a patient for compartment syndrome after tibial fracture casting, which finding is the most reliable early indicator?

Skin pallor distal to the cast
Paresthesia in all toes
Pain out of proportion to the injury (Correct answer)
Absence of distal pulse

Correct answer: Pain out of proportion to the injury

Pain out of proportion to the injury is the earliest and most reliable clinical indicator of compartment syndrome.

Question 136: A patient with a new short leg cast complains of a 'pins and needles' sensation and coolness in their toes. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial action for the Orthopaedic Technologist?

Instruct the patient to elevate the leg and apply ice.
Immediately perform a neurovascular assessment of the affected extremity. (Correct answer)
Loosen the cast slightly and reassure the patient that this is normal.
Document the findings and inform the physician at the next rounding.

Correct answer: Immediately perform a neurovascular assessment of the affected extremity.

The patient's symptoms suggest potential neurovascular compromise, a serious complication. The priority is to perform a thorough neurovascular assessment, checking for circulation (capillary refill, color, temperature, pulse), sensation, and motor function. This assessment provides the critical information needed to determine the severity and guide subsequent actions, including immediately notifying the physician.

Question 137: During an external fixator application for a tibia fracture, the OT's role when handling Schanz pins includes:

Pre-bending pins to match limb contour
Selecting pin diameter based on patient age alone
Boiling pins in sterile water immediately before insertion
Ensuring pins remain sterile and loading them into the drill chuck without contaminating threads (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Ensuring pins remain sterile and loading them into the drill chuck without contaminating threads

Schanz pins must remain sterile throughout; the OT loads them into the chuck carefully to avoid contaminating the bone-contact threads.

Question 138: Which orthotic device is specifically designed to limit dorsiflexion and plantarflexion while allowing mediolateral motion?

Solid ankle-foot orthosis (AFO)
Patellar tendon-bearing brace
Hinged AFO with limited motion stops (Correct answer)
Arizona brace

Correct answer: Hinged AFO with limited motion stops

A hinged AFO with adjustable stops can be set to restrict sagittal plane motion (dorsiflexion/plantarflexion) while leaving coronal plane motion unrestricted.

Question 139: A patient with a C5 burst fracture requires which cervical immobilization device if surgical intervention is delayed?

Soft foam collar
Cervical pillow
Philadelphia collar alone
Halo vest orthosis (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Halo vest orthosis

A halo vest provides the most rigid immobilization for an unstable burst fracture awaiting surgery.

Question 140: The primary purpose of pulsed lavage (high-pressure irrigation) during orthopaedic surgery is to:

Activate bone morphogenetic proteins in the surgical site
Lubricate power tool cutting surfaces
Remove debris, devitalized tissue, and bacteria to reduce infection risk (Correct answer)
Hydrate exposed bone to prevent necrosis

Correct answer: Remove debris, devitalized tissue, and bacteria to reduce infection risk

Pulsed lavage mechanically removes contaminants, devitalized tissue, and bacterial load from the surgical site to reduce infection risk.

Question 141: Which of the following best describes the role of an Orthopaedic Technologist relative to physician supervision?

OTs practice independently and make autonomous clinical decisions
OTs perform technical tasks under the direction and supervision of a licensed physician (Correct answer)
OTs are equivalent to PAs and NPs in scope of practice
OTs supervise other allied health professionals in the cast room

Correct answer: OTs perform technical tasks under the direction and supervision of a licensed physician

Orthopaedic Technologists are trained to perform technical orthopedic procedures but always work under the direction and supervision of a licensed physician.

Question 142: Which special test is used to assess for shoulder impingement syndrome by internally rotating and flexing the arm to compress the supraspinatus?

Yergason's test
Apprehension test
Speed's test
Hawkins-Kennedy test (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Hawkins-Kennedy test

The Hawkins-Kennedy test internally rotates the shoulder in 90° of forward flexion, compressing the supraspinatus under the coracoacromial arch to reproduce impingement pain.

Question 143: Pin site care for skeletal traction typically includes:

Cleaning with prescribed solution and monitoring for signs of infection (Correct answer)
Applying antibiotic ointment and occlusive dressing only on day 1
Packing the site with petroleum gauze twice daily
Leaving the site completely open to air with no dressing

Correct answer: Cleaning with prescribed solution and monitoring for signs of infection

Pin sites require routine cleaning with an approved solution (e.g., chlorhexidine or normal saline) and monitoring for erythema, drainage, or loosening.

Question 144: When assessing radial nerve function after a humeral shaft fracture, which specific motor action should the orthopaedic technologist evaluate?

Wrist flexion
Finger abduction
Wrist and finger extension (Correct answer)
Thumb opposition

Correct answer: Wrist and finger extension

The radial nerve innervates the wrist and finger extensors; inability to extend the wrist (wrist drop) is the classic sign of radial nerve injury associated with humeral shaft fractures.

Question 145: The cast spreader tool used during bivalving is inserted into the cut to:

Guide the cast saw along the correct line
Measure the compartment pressure
Pry the two halves apart to decompress the limb (Correct answer)
Cut through the underlying padding

Correct answer: Pry the two halves apart to decompress the limb

The cast spreader is inserted into the bivalve cuts to gently pry the halves apart, widening the cast to relieve constrictive pressure.

Question 146: Traction is generally contraindicated in which of the following scenarios?

Femoral shaft fracture in a 5-year-old
Intertrochanteric hip fracture awaiting surgery
Open fracture with active vascular injury requiring repair (Correct answer)
Cervical radiculopathy unresponsive to conservative care

Correct answer: Open fracture with active vascular injury requiring repair

An open fracture with active vascular injury requires emergent surgical repair; applying traction could worsen vascular compromise and delay definitive treatment.

Question 147: When applying skin traction to a patient's lower leg, which of the following areas requires careful padding to prevent a common nerve injury?

The medial malleolus
The patellar tendon
The Achilles tendon
The head of the fibula (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The head of the fibula

The head of the fibula, located on the outer side of the leg just below the knee, is where the common peroneal nerve is most superficial. Applying pressure here with traction straps or bandages can lead to nerve compression, resulting in foot drop and sensory deficits. Therefore, this area must be well-padded and the straps applied carefully to avoid this complication.

Question 148: The classic '5 P's' of compartment syndrome include Pain, Pallor, Pulselessness, Paresthesia, and which fifth sign?

Petechiae
Palliation
Pressure
Paralysis (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Paralysis

The five P's — Pain (worst with passive stretch), Pallor, Pulselessness, Paresthesia, and Paralysis — characterize compartment syndrome, with paralysis and pulselessness being late, ominous signs.

Question 149: When padding a cast, bony prominences such as the fibular head should receive:

A felt donut pad only if pain is reported
No additional padding to maintain cast conformity
Rigid plastic padding to distribute load
Extra padding to prevent pressure sores (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Extra padding to prevent pressure sores

Bony prominences are at high risk for pressure necrosis and must receive extra cast padding to prevent skin breakdown.

Question 150: A patient returns 48 hours after short arm cast application with numbness and tingling in the thumb, index, and middle fingers. Which nerve is most likely compressed?

Musculocutaneous nerve
Ulnar nerve
Median nerve (Correct answer)
Radial nerve

Correct answer: Median nerve

Numbness in the thumb, index, and middle fingers corresponds to the sensory distribution of the median nerve, which passes through the carpal tunnel.

Question 151: Compartment syndrome is BEST assessed by evaluating which of the following?

Capillary refill and pulse oximetry only
Range of motion and muscle strength
Pain with passive stretch, paresthesia, and compartment pressure (Correct answer)
Skin color and cast tightness alone

Correct answer: Pain with passive stretch, paresthesia, and compartment pressure

The classic assessment of compartment syndrome includes pain out of proportion, pain with passive stretch, paresthesia, and direct compartment pressure measurement.

Question 152: When applying cast padding (Webril), each layer should overlap the previous layer by approximately what percentage?

50% (Correct answer)
10–15%
75%
25–30%

Correct answer: 50%

Cast padding is applied with approximately 50% overlap to ensure even, consistent padding thickness without gaps or bunching.

Question 153: The occiput-C1-C2 complex is responsible for what percentage of total cervical rotation?

35%
70%
50% (Correct answer)
15%

Correct answer: 50%

Approximately 50% of cervical rotation occurs at the atlantoaxial (C1-C2) joint, making this level critical to immobilize.

Question 154: To prevent a Volkmann's ischemic contracture, which neurovascular check is most critical in the first hours after upper extremity casting?

Sensation in the radial nerve distribution over the dorsum of the hand
Grip strength assessment
Shoulder range of motion
Capillary refill time and skin color in the fingertips (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Capillary refill time and skin color in the fingertips

Capillary refill and fingertip color are early, reliable indicators of vascular compromise that precedes Volkmann's contracture.

Question 155: A patient with a mid-shaft humerus fracture presents with wrist drop and impaired sensation over the dorsal first web space. Which nerve is injured?

Median nerve
Radial nerve (Correct answer)
Axillary nerve
Ulnar nerve

Correct answer: Radial nerve

The radial nerve spirals around the humeral shaft in the radial groove and is commonly injured in mid-shaft fractures, causing wrist drop and sensory loss in the first web space.

Question 156: During an open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) procedure, the surgeon drills a hole through a bone cortex and then uses a depth gauge. What is the direct purpose of using the depth gauge at this stage?

To measure the density of the bone
To select the correct diameter for the drill bit
To confirm the fracture has been adequately reduced
To determine the appropriate length of the screw to be used (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To determine the appropriate length of the screw to be used

The depth gauge is a calibrated instrument used to measure the depth of a drilled hole in bone. This measurement allows the surgeon to select a screw of the correct length to ensure optimal purchase and fixation without protruding excessively, which could damage soft tissues.

Question 157: The recommended contact time for a quaternary ammonium disinfectant to be effective on a hard surface is typically:

30 seconds
10 minutes (Correct answer)
10 seconds
30 minutes

Correct answer: 10 minutes

Most quaternary ammonium compounds require a 10-minute wet contact time on surfaces to achieve the labeled disinfection efficacy.

Question 158: The 5 P's used to assess neurovascular status in a casted limb include pain, pallor, pulselessness, paresthesia, and:

Pressure
Pigmentation
Paralysis (Correct answer)
Perspiration

Correct answer: Paralysis

The classic 5 P's of neurovascular compromise are pain, pallor, pulselessness, paresthesia, and paralysis (inability to move).

Question 159: A patient with a below-knee cast complains of new-onset calf pain and warmth 5 days post-injury. The OT's primary concern should be:

Cast pressure sore
Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) (Correct answer)
Reflex sympathetic dystrophy
Superficial wound infection

Correct answer: Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)

New calf pain and warmth in an immobilized patient are classic signs of DVT, which requires urgent physician evaluation and possible anticoagulation.

Question 160: Which of the following is the correct sequence for donning personal protective equipment (PPE)?

Gloves → gown → mask → eye protection
Mask → gloves → gown → eye protection
Gown → mask → eye protection → gloves (Correct answer)
Eye protection → gloves → gown → mask

Correct answer: Gown → mask → eye protection → gloves

CDC guidelines recommend donning PPE in the order: gown first, then mask or respirator, eye protection, and finally gloves so that the gloves cover the gown cuffs.

Question 161: An orthopaedic technologist notices a needle on the floor of the procedure room. The safest action is to:

Pick it up bare-handed and dispose of it immediately
Use a mechanical device or forceps to pick it up without recapping (Correct answer)
Recap the needle before placing it in the sharps container
Leave it and notify housekeeping to handle it

Correct answer: Use a mechanical device or forceps to pick it up without recapping

Needles on floors should never be picked up bare-handed; a mechanical device prevents needlestick injury, and needles should never be recapped.

Question 162: While setting up a sterile field for a joint aspiration, the technologist notices a small tear in the outer wrapper of a sterile gauze package. What is the correct course of action?

Discard the entire package and obtain a new, intact one. (Correct answer)
Open the package carefully, avoiding the torn area.
Cover the tear with a sterile gloved finger and then open the package.
Use the gauze since the inner contents are likely still sterile.

Correct answer: Discard the entire package and obtain a new, intact one.

The integrity of the packaging is essential for maintaining sterility. Any tear, puncture, or water damage compromises the sterile barrier, and the item must be considered contaminated. The only safe action is to discard the compromised package and obtain a new one.

Question 163: Ergonomic best practices for an orthopaedic technologist applying a long leg cast include:

Standing on one foot to increase stability
Twisting the torso to maintain patient eye contact
Keeping the patient's limb higher than the technologist's waist throughout
Positioning the work surface at a height that minimizes bending and reaching (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Positioning the work surface at a height that minimizes bending and reaching

Adjusting the work surface height to minimize bending and awkward postures reduces the risk of musculoskeletal injuries for the technologist.

Question 164: What is the recommended frequency for neurovascular checks in a newly admitted traction patient?

Once per shift after the initial assessment
Every 8 hours
Every 4 hours for the first 24 hours, then every 8 hours
Every hour for the first 24 hours (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Every hour for the first 24 hours

Newly applied traction demands hourly neurovascular checks for the first 24 hours to detect early vascular compromise or compartment syndrome.

Question 165: A patient in skeletal traction for a femur fracture develops pin site redness, warmth, and purulent drainage. The OT's priority action is to:

Remove the traction pin immediately
Clean the pin site and apply antibiotic ointment independently
Notify the supervising physician and document findings (Correct answer)
Increase the traction weight to reduce movement at the site

Correct answer: Notify the supervising physician and document findings

Signs of pin site infection require prompt physician notification; independent treatment or removal of traction hardware is outside OT scope and could cause harm.

Orthopaedic Technologist Certified (OTC) Examination

The OTC exam certifies orthopaedic technologists in patient assessment, casting and splinting, surgical assistance, and clinical management. It is administered by the National Board for Certification of Orthopaedic Technologists (NBCOT).

165

Questions

180 min

Time Limit

67%

To Pass

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