OTC Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield OTC facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. Sensation over the dorsum of the foot (excluding the first web space) is primarily supplied by which nerve? → Superficial peroneal nerve
2. Loss of sensation on the medial aspect of the forearm and hypothenar eminence most likely indicates injury to which nerve? → Ulnar nerve
3. In a neurovascular assessment, 'paresthesia' refers to: → Abnormal sensations such as tingling, numbness, or burning
4. The Ottawa Ankle Rules are a clinical decision tool used primarily to determine the need for which diagnostic study? → Ankle radiographs
5. A Colles' fracture is a distal radius fracture characterized by which deformity? → Dorsal angulation
6. Which term best describes a fracture where one bone end is driven into the other by compressive force? → Impacted fracture
7. According to the principles of Standard Precautions, when should an Orthopaedic Technologist wear gloves? → When anticipating contact with any blood, body fluids, or non-intact skin.
8. When an Orthopaedic Technologist is instructed to bivalve a cast to relieve pressure, what is the correct procedure? → Making two complete longitudinal cuts on opposite sides of the cast.
9. Which fracture type involves a fragment of bone being pulled away at a tendon or ligament attachment site? → Avulsion
10. In the RICE protocol for acute soft tissue injuries, what does the letter 'E' stand for? → Elevation
11. Which of the following is a primary advantage of using a sugar-tong splint over a circumferential cast for an acute, unstable distal forearm fracture? → It accommodates for initial swelling better than a circumferential cast.
12. Which fracture results from repetitive microtrauma and is commonly seen in distance runners and military recruits? → Stress
13. Which pulse is assessed at the dorsum of the foot to evaluate vascular integrity of the lower extremity distal to a tibial fracture? → Dorsalis pedis pulse
14. When applying a rigid cervical collar to a trauma patient, what is the MOST critical initial action before the device is placed around the neck? → Maintaining manual in-line stabilization of the head and neck.
15. A fracture occurring through bone that has been weakened by a pre-existing condition such as cancer or osteoporosis is classified as which type? → Pathologic fracture
16. What is the primary purpose of wound debridement in orthopaedic wound care? → Remove necrotic tissue and contamination to reduce infection risk
17. What is the correct technique for wound irrigation using normal saline in orthopaedic wound care? → Gentle low-pressure irrigation flowing from center outward
18. What is the primary therapeutic purpose of applying a pelvic binder or circumferential sheet to a patient with a suspected unstable pelvic fracture? → To reduce pelvic volume and provide compression to control hemorrhage.
19. Which of the following methods is required to achieve surgical sterilization of instruments, such as pin cutters, that will be used in an invasive procedure? → Processing in an autoclave using steam under pressure.
20. When molding a short arm cast, which part of the hand should be used to apply pressure and conform the material to the limb's anatomy? → Thenar eminence/palms
21. Which of the following spinal orthoses is specifically designed to limit flexion of the thoracolumbar spine by applying a three-point pressure system? → Jewett brace
22. Which fracture type is characterized by three or more bone fragments at the fracture site? → Comminuted
23. When applying a short arm cast for a distal radius fracture, what is the correct distal landmark for the plaster or fiberglass? → The proximal palmar crease
24. A wound left open to heal from the base upward through granulation tissue formation is healing by which method? → Secondary intention
25. What is the most appropriate first action when a surgical wound shows early signs of infection, including erythema, warmth, and purulent drainage? → Notify the treating physician immediately
26. Testing the ability to abduct and adduct the fingers assesses function of which nerve in the upper extremity? → Ulnar nerve
27. Wound healing where edges are directly approximated and closed with sutures or staples is referred to as healing by which intention? → Primary intention
28. The Garden classification system is used specifically to categorize fractures of which anatomical location? → Femoral neck
29. A torus (buckle) fracture in a pediatric patient is best characterized by which finding? → Cortical bulging without complete fracture
30. What is considered a normal capillary refill time (CRT) in an adult orthopaedic patient? → Less than 2 seconds