Obstetric Nurse Antepartum Complications Questions and Answers

Question 1

A client at 34 weeks gestation is admitted with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. Her uterus is soft and non-tender, and the fetal heart rate is stable. Which condition should the nurse suspect?

Accepted Answer

Placenta previa

Answer

The classic presentation of placenta previa is painless, bright red vaginal bleeding after 20 weeks of gestation, with a soft, non-tender uterus. Abruptio placentae typically presents with painful, dark red bleeding and uterine tenderness or rigidity. Vasa previa often presents with bleeding upon rupture of membranes, and preterm labor involves regular contractions.

Question 2

A nurse is reviewing the criteria for a diagnosis of preeclampsia with severe features. Which of the following findings is a key indicator of this condition?

Accepted Answer

Platelet count less than 100,000/μL

Answer

According to ACOG guidelines, preeclampsia with severe features is diagnosed in the presence of new-onset hypertension along with specific signs of end-organ damage. A platelet count below 100,000/μL (thrombocytopenia) is a diagnostic criterion for severe features. While elevated blood pressure and proteinuria are present in preeclampsia, the other options describe findings of preeclampsia without severe features or common pregnancy symptoms.

Question 3

A 26-week pregnant client with no prior history of glucose intolerance is scheduled for routine screening for gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM). What is the standard initial screening test the nurse should prepare the client for?

Accepted Answer

A 1-hour, 50-gram glucose challenge test (GCT)

Answer

The standard and most common initial screening for GDM in the United States, recommended by ACOG, is a 1-hour, 50-gram non-fasting glucose challenge test, typically performed between 24 and 28 weeks of gestation. The 3-hour OGTT is the diagnostic test used if the initial 1-hour screen is abnormal.

Question 4

A client at 30 weeks gestation is experiencing regular uterine contractions and has a confirmed diagnosis of preterm labor. The provider orders a tocolytic medication to delay delivery. Which of the following medications is classified as a tocolytic agent?

Accepted Answer

Nifedipine

Answer

Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, is a commonly used tocolytic agent that works by inhibiting uterine smooth muscle contractions to delay preterm labor. Betamethasone is a corticosteroid given to promote fetal lung maturity. Rho(D) immune globulin is for Rh incompatibility, and Ondansetron is an antiemetic.

Question 5

A pregnant client at 32 weeks gestation presents with epigastric pain, nausea, and malaise. Laboratory results show: Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 150 IU/L, Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 180 IU/L, platelet count 80,000/μL, and schistocytes on the peripheral blood smear. These findings are most indicative of which complication?

Accepted Answer

HELLP syndrome

Answer

HELLP syndrome is a severe variant of preeclampsia characterized by Hemolysis (indicated by schistocytes), Elevated Liver enzymes (AST and ALT >70 IU/L), and Low Platelets (count <100,000/μL). The client's lab values and symptoms are classic for this life-threatening condition.

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Obstetric Nurse Antepartum Complications Questions and Answers