Obstetric Nurse Test Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield Obstetric Nurse Test facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. The nurse notes that a newborn has not passed meconium within 48 hours of birth. This finding should prompt evaluation for: → Hirschsprung disease or cystic fibrosis
2. A postpartum patient who is not breastfeeding asks when her menstrual cycle will return. What is the most accurate response? → Menstruation typically returns within 6–8 weeks postpartum
3. Which action by a newly licensed obstetric nurse reflects the professional standard of continuing competence? → Pursuing specialty certification and regularly reviewing current perinatal guidelines
4. A neonate born to a mother with poorly controlled gestational diabetes is at highest immediate risk for which complication? → Neonatal hypoglycemia
5. Supporting a patient's desire to get an opioid and an epidural throughout labor is an illustration of the moral rule of → Autonomy
6. During the third stage of labor, which clinical sign indicates placental separation has occurred? → The fundus rises in the abdomen, the cord lengthens, and a gush of blood is seen
7. A nurse is teaching a patient about taking iron supplements prescribed during pregnancy. Which instruction is most important for maximizing absorption? → Take with vitamin C such as orange juice
8. Monochorionic-diamniotic (MCDA) twins share a placenta and are at specific risk for which serious complication not seen in dichorionic twins? → Twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome (TTTS)
9. A patient at 30 weeks with a biophysical profile (BPP) score of 4/10 is being evaluated. What is the most appropriate next step? → Prepare for delivery or further evaluation with contraction stress test
10. The nurse is performing a CRIES pain assessment on a postoperative neonate. Which parameter is NOT included in this tool? → Gestational age
11. Which postpartum patient is at highest risk for developing postpartum hemorrhage? → Multigravida who delivered twins with a prolonged third stage of labor
12. Which medication is used prophylactically in a patient with a history of preeclampsia to reduce recurrence risk in the current pregnancy? → Low-dose aspirin (81 mg daily)
13. During a shift, a nurse realizes she made a medication error on a postpartum patient. The ethical principle of veracity requires the nurse to: → Disclose the error to the patient and provider and complete an incident report
14. A patient at 30 weeks with known placenta previa presents with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. Which nursing action takes highest priority? → Initiate IV access and continuous fetal monitoring
15. What is the most important teaching point regarding alcohol consumption during pregnancy? → No amount of alcohol has been proven safe during pregnancy
16. When differentiating between abruptio placentae and placenta previa, which clinical finding is uniquely characteristic of abruptio placentae? → Abnormal fetal presentation, such as breech or transverse lie
17. Which medication is administered prophylactically to a newborn shortly after birth to prevent ophthalmia neonatorum? → Erythromycin ophthalmic ointment
18. A patient asks about nitrous oxide (N2O) for labor pain. Which statement by the nurse is most accurate? → It reduces pain perception and anxiety without eliminating sensation
19. The nurse is assessing a newborn's fontanels. Which finding requires immediate notification of the provider? → Bulging anterior fontanel with a high-pitched cry and lethargy
20. Which local anesthetic agent is most commonly used in continuous epidural infusions for labor analgesia? → Low-concentration bupivacaine or ropivacaine
21. A breastfeeding patient at day 4 postpartum asks the nurse about contraception. Which method is recommended as the safest option for breastfeeding women? → Progestin-only pills (mini-pill)
22. Cell-free DNA (cfDNA) screening is most sensitive and specific for detecting which chromosomal condition? → Trisomy 21 (Down syndrome)
23. Which of the following is a defining characteristic of a Category I fetal heart rate tracing? → Moderate baseline variability
24. What position is most common for cervical lacerations during labor and delivery? → 3 and 9 o’clock
25. A nurse is preparing to administer carboprost tromethamine (Hemabate) for postpartum hemorrhage. Which patient condition is a contraindication? → Active asthma
26. Which medication given in labor can cause neonatal respiratory depression and is best avoided within 4 hours of anticipated delivery? → Meperidine (Demerol)
27. Fetal traits during the initial phase of responsiveness after birth include → Alert state and movement of limbs
28. Which patterned breathing technique taught in childbirth education classes (such as Lamaze) is primarily used to help manage contraction pain during labor? → Paced rhythmic breathing synchronized with contractions
29. A patient is admitted at 26 weeks with preterm labor and is started on nifedipine. Which side effect requires immediate nursing assessment? → Maternal hypotension and tachycardia
30. Which finding on newborn skin assessment is considered a normal variant requiring no intervention? → Erythema toxicum neonatorum