MEPS Physical Qualification Standards 2 — Questions and Answers
Question 1: What is the minimum acceptable distant visual acuity (uncorrected) for most military enlistees?
- 20/20 in both eyes
- 20/200 in the worse eye with correction to 20/40 (Correct answer)
- 20/400 uncorrected correctable to 20/20
- 20/100 in both eyes with no correction required
Correct answer: 20/200 in the worse eye with correction to 20/40
Most branches allow uncorrected vision as poor as 20/200 in the worse eye as long as it corrects to 20/40 or better.
Question 2: Which condition automatically disqualifies an applicant from military service at MEPS?
- Mild seasonal allergies
- Current insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (Correct answer)
- History of a single broken bone fully healed
- Mild flat feet with no symptoms
Correct answer: Current insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus
Insulin-dependent (Type 1) diabetes mellitus is a permanent disqualifying condition due to medication dependency and unpredictable hypoglycemia risk.
Question 3: What body fat percentage is considered the MEPS screening threshold above which an applicant is flagged for further evaluation before being processed?
- BMI over 25
- A tape-test body fat percentage exceeding branch-specific standards (Correct answer)
- Weight more than 20 lbs over the chart
- Waist circumference over 40 inches for males
Correct answer: A tape-test body fat percentage exceeding branch-specific standards
MEPS uses a tape-test body composition measurement and compares results against each military branch's specific body fat percentage limits.
Question 4: A recruit has a resting blood pressure of 150/95 mmHg on two separate readings at MEPS. What is the likely outcome?
- Immediate enlistment with a waiver
- Disqualification pending medical evaluation for hypertension (Correct answer)
- Automatic clearance if under age 30
- Referral only if diastolic exceeds 110
Correct answer: Disqualification pending medical evaluation for hypertension
Sustained blood pressure above 140/90 mmHg is a disqualifying finding that requires further medical evaluation before a service determination is made.
Question 5: Which hearing standard must applicants meet at MEPS for military enlistment?
- Hear a whisper at 20 feet in a quiet room
- No loss greater than 30 dB at 500–2000 Hz or 45 dB at 3000–4000 Hz (Correct answer)
- Pure-tone average better than 15 dB in both ears
- No hearing aid use within the past 12 months
Correct answer: No loss greater than 30 dB at 500–2000 Hz or 45 dB at 3000–4000 Hz
The audiometric standard generally prohibits average hearing loss exceeding 30 dB at speech frequencies and 45 dB at higher frequencies.
Question 6: What is the purpose of the orthopedic evaluation portion of the MEPS physical examination?
- To measure grip strength and running speed
- To assess range of motion and detect musculoskeletal conditions that could limit duty performance (Correct answer)
- To screen for genetic bone diseases exclusively
- To verify that all prior fractures were treated surgically
Correct answer: To assess range of motion and detect musculoskeletal conditions that could limit duty performance
The orthopedic exam checks joint mobility, posture, and musculoskeletal integrity to identify conditions that could impair a service member's physical performance.
Question 7: Which neurological condition, if present and uncontrolled, is typically disqualifying at MEPS?
- A single febrile seizure before age 5
- Active epilepsy with seizures within the past 5 years (Correct answer)
- Migraine headaches controlled by over-the-counter medication
- A history of fainting once during blood draw
Correct answer: Active epilepsy with seizures within the past 5 years
Active epilepsy or a seizure disorder with events within the past five years is disqualifying due to the risk of sudden incapacitation on duty.
MEPS Physical Qualification Standards 2
What is the minimum acceptable distant visual acuity (uncorrected) for most military enlistees?