MEPS Exam — Questions and Answers

Question 1: Which form is used to initiate a security clearance investigation for military applicants requiring a Secret or Top Secret clearance?

SF-85 (Questionnaire for Non-Sensitive Positions)
DD Form 2807
DD Form 4
SF-86 (Questionnaire for National Security Positions) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: SF-86 (Questionnaire for National Security Positions)

The SF-86 is the standard federal form used to collect background information for national security position investigations, including Secret and Top Secret clearances.

Question 2: What formal ceremony occurs when a recruit officially enlists into the DEP at MEPS?

A commissioning ceremony
The Oath of Enlistment (Correct answer)
A military occupational specialty assignment briefing
An induction ceremony

Correct answer: The Oath of Enlistment

Recruits take the Oath of Enlistment when they formally join the DEP, and they take it again when they ship to basic training.

Question 3: A recruit scoring below the minimum AFQT score can attempt to improve it by doing what?

Retaking the ASVAB after a mandatory waiting period (Correct answer)
Appealing to a military judge
Completing a waiver request
Completing a GED program only

Correct answer: Retaking the ASVAB after a mandatory waiting period

Recruits can retake the ASVAB after a mandatory waiting period (typically one month after initial testing, then six months for subsequent tests) to try to achieve a qualifying score.

Question 4: During the MEPS audiometric test, a recruit cannot hear certain frequencies in one ear. What standard is applied?

Only total deafness in both ears is disqualifying
The test is purely informational and has no pass/fail threshold
Any hearing loss in one ear is disqualifying
Pure tone average thresholds at specific frequencies must meet branch standards (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Pure tone average thresholds at specific frequencies must meet branch standards

MEPS uses pure tone audiometry with defined threshold standards at key frequencies; failing these thresholds can be disqualifying depending on severity.

Question 5: Can the military legally order a DEP member to report to active duty before their scheduled ship date?

Only in cases of a formal war declaration by Congress
Yes, theoretically, because DEP members are technically enlisted members of the Ready Reserve (Correct answer)
Only if the DEP member provides written consent to the early reporting date
No, the military has no legal authority over DEP members whatsoever

Correct answer: Yes, theoretically, because DEP members are technically enlisted members of the Ready Reserve

Because DEP members are technically enlisted in the Ready Reserve, the military has the legal authority to order them to active duty, though this authority is rarely exercised.

Question 6: How does an applicant's financial history, such as significant debt or bankruptcy, affect moral waiver requirements?

Only student loan debt is evaluated
Financial history is irrelevant to military enlistment
Significant debt or bankruptcy may affect security clearance eligibility and must be disclosed, potentially requiring a financial fitness review (Correct answer)
Bankruptcy automatically disqualifies for all military service

Correct answer: Significant debt or bankruptcy may affect security clearance eligibility and must be disclosed, potentially requiring a financial fitness review

Significant debt, bankruptcy, or financial irresponsibility can affect security clearance eligibility and is reviewed as part of the character assessment, particularly for jobs requiring access to sensitive information.

Question 7: A recruiter tells a candidate their AFQT score qualifies them for 'almost all MOS options.' This likely means the score is:

65 or above (Correct answer)
Between 50 and 64
Between 31 and 49
Between 20 and 30

Correct answer: 65 or above

An AFQT score of 65 or above (Category II) qualifies recruits for virtually all military occupational specialties across all branches.

Question 8: If an applicant scores below the minimum AFQT threshold for their desired branch, what is the standard next step?

They are automatically assigned to a support MOS
They must enlist in the National Guard instead
They may retake the ASVAB after a mandatory waiting period (Correct answer)
They are permanently disqualified from military service

Correct answer: They may retake the ASVAB after a mandatory waiting period

Applicants who score below the minimum may retest after a one-month waiting period following the first retest, with subsequent retests requiring a six-month wait.

Question 9: If an applicant has an expunged juvenile record, what is the general guidance at MEPS?

Expunged records never need to be disclosed under any circumstances
Expungement converts the record to an adult conviction
The applicant must disclose it if asked directly on military forms (Correct answer)
Only the recruiter needs to know, not MEPS personnel

Correct answer: The applicant must disclose it if asked directly on military forms

Federal military forms often require disclosure of expunged records, and failing to disclose when asked can be considered fraudulent enlistment.

Question 10: Why might an applicant with significant social media activity promoting extremist ideology be disqualified even without a criminal record?

Social media activity is never reviewed during MEPS processing
Social media is reviewed only after enlistment during security upgrade reviews
Extremist ideology is only relevant for officer candidates
It may demonstrate views incompatible with the oath of service and raise security or loyalty concerns (Correct answer)

Correct answer: It may demonstrate views incompatible with the oath of service and raise security or loyalty concerns

DoD policy prohibits active participation in extremist groups, and social media evidence of extremist views can disqualify an applicant on moral and security grounds.

Question 11: Which of the following scenarios would most likely result in a moral waiver being required for enlistment?

An applicant who failed a class in high school
An applicant who changed their major twice in college
An applicant with a juvenile misdemeanor conviction for shoplifting (Correct answer)
An applicant who broke their arm as a teenager

Correct answer: An applicant with a juvenile misdemeanor conviction for shoplifting

Juvenile or adult criminal records, including minor misdemeanors, typically require a moral waiver reviewed by the service branch.

Question 12: What happens if an applicant tests positive for marijuana at MEPS?

They can immediately retest
They are permanently barred from all military service
They are immediately arrested
They may apply for a waiver, but policies vary by branch and depend on the amount detected (Correct answer)

Correct answer: They may apply for a waiver, but policies vary by branch and depend on the amount detected

A positive marijuana test at MEPS typically results in disqualification, but applicants may seek a waiver; policies vary by branch and current regulations.

Question 13: What category of offense is most likely to result in an automatic permanent bar to military service?

Minor traffic violations
Juvenile misdemeanor convictions
Felony convictions, especially for violent crimes, sex offenses, or drug trafficking (Correct answer)
Speeding tickets over 15 mph

Correct answer: Felony convictions, especially for violent crimes, sex offenses, or drug trafficking

Felony convictions, especially for violent crimes, sexual offenses, or drug trafficking, typically constitute automatic bars to enlistment that cannot be waived or require extraordinary waiver authority.

Question 14: A recruit scoring in Category I on the AFQT scored in which percentile range?

1–9
93–99 (Correct answer)
10–30
50–64

Correct answer: 93–99

Category I covers AFQT percentile scores from 93 to 99, representing the highest-scoring applicants.

Question 15: The field of aquaculture, also referred to as "fish farming," is expanding quickly. Organizations all over the world are creating aquaculture resources so they can raise and harvest fish in regulated environments rather than fishing for them in the wild. Using this method, people can supply huge quantities of fresh fish for marketing. <br> The best heading for this sentence is:

Fish Farming Is the Next Best Thing to Deep-sea Excursions
Aquaculture—Developing Fish Farms (Correct answer)
Fishing Is Part of Our Culture
The Science of Aquamarines

Correct answer: Aquaculture—Developing Fish Farms

Aquaculture's development of fish farms has seen significant growth worldwide as a means to meet the increasing demand for seafood, reduce pressure on wild fish populations, and provide economic opportunities in the fisheries sector. It plays a crucial role in food security, sustainable resource management, and supporting the seafood industry.

Question 16: In the movie, the star <span style="background-color: #F8D210;">brandished</span> a stick at the star actor in a threatening manner because she believed him to be a thief.

peered
waved menacingly (Correct answer)
smacked
threw

Correct answer: waved menacingly

Brandish means to wave menacingly.

Question 17: What is the trick to help pass the depth perception test at MEPS?

Focus on one circle and ignore the rest
Close your eyes and count to 10
Cross your eyes and relax them (Correct answer)
Take a break and come back later

Correct answer: Cross your eyes and relax them

Try to stay relaxed and avoid unnecessary stress or tension during the test. A calm and focused mindset can help you perform at your best.

Question 18: What is the Delayed Entry Program (DEP) most commonly used for in relation to job selection?

To allow recruits to enter service at a future date while reserving their selected job (Correct answer)
To defer enlistment for recruits with pending legal matters
To give recruits time to complete college coursework before enlisting
To allow recruits to retake the ASVAB for better scores before shipping

Correct answer: To allow recruits to enter service at a future date while reserving their selected job

The DEP allows recruits to commit to a specific job and ship date while remaining civilians, sometimes for up to a year.

Question 19: Which federal agency is primarily responsible for overseeing MEPS operations nationwide?

Department of Veterans Affairs
Military Entrance Processing Command (MEPCOM) (Correct answer)
Defense Contract Management Agency
Office of Personnel Management

Correct answer: Military Entrance Processing Command (MEPCOM)

MEPCOM, headquartered in North Chicago, Illinois, provides command and control over all MEPS locations across the United States.

Question 20: What role does the Designated Employer Representative (DER) play in the MEPS drug testing process?

Performs laboratory analysis of urine samples
Reviews applicants' medical histories for drug-related conditions
Receives MRO-verified results and makes employment/service eligibility decisions (Correct answer)
Observes specimen collection to ensure compliance

Correct answer: Receives MRO-verified results and makes employment/service eligibility decisions

The DER is the official who receives verified test results from the MRO and takes appropriate action regarding the individual's eligibility to serve.

Question 21: An Air Force applicant needs a minimum AFQT score of how much to enlist with a high school diploma?

31
35
36 (Correct answer)
50

Correct answer: 36

The Air Force requires a minimum AFQT score of 36 for high school diploma holders.

Question 22: An applicant discloses use of a prescription opioid (oxycodone) for a past injury. At MEPS, this would most likely be evaluated by:

The Department of Justice
The recruiter, who decides eligibility
The Military Entrance Processing Station physician only
Both the MRO for the drug test and the MEPS physician for the medical history (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Both the MRO for the drug test and the MEPS physician for the medical history

Prescription opioid disclosure is reviewed by the MRO to validate the drug test result and by the MEPS physician to evaluate whether the underlying medical condition affects military eligibility.

Question 23: How do felony charges that were eventually pleaded down to misdemeanors affect military enlistment?

Pleaded-down charges are automatically waived
The applicant must disclose the original felony charge AND the final misdemeanor disposition; the waiver authority reviews the full picture (Correct answer)
The original felony charge is irrelevant once it is pleaded down
Only the final conviction matters; original charges are never reviewed

Correct answer: The applicant must disclose the original felony charge AND the final misdemeanor disposition; the waiver authority reviews the full picture

Applicants must disclose both the original charge AND the final disposition. The waiver authority considers the underlying conduct, not just the final legal label.

Question 24: What type of background check is conducted at MEPS to assess an applicant's moral qualifications?

A psychological interview conducted by a psychiatrist
A review of criminal history, drug use, and conduct using law enforcement records (Correct answer)
An evaluation of social media posts and online activity only
A neighborhood survey of the applicant's references

Correct answer: A review of criminal history, drug use, and conduct using law enforcement records

MEPS reviews law enforcement records to identify criminal history, prior drug use, or other conduct that may disqualify an applicant on moral grounds.

Question 25: Which of the following ASVAB subtests most directly influences qualification for jobs in the Signal/Communications field?

Electronics Information and General Science (Correct answer)
Word Knowledge and Paragraph Comprehension
Coding Speed and Numerical Operations
Mechanical Comprehension and Auto Information

Correct answer: Electronics Information and General Science

Signal and communications jobs rely heavily on Electronics Information and General Science subtest scores as part of their qualifying composite.

Question 26: What does 'accession' mean in the military recruiting context?

The process of a recruit formally entering military service (Correct answer)
Gaining access to classified information
Promotion to a higher rank
Transfer between military branches

Correct answer: The process of a recruit formally entering military service

Accession refers to the official process by which a recruit enters active military service, typically at MEPS when they take the oath and ship to training.

Question 27: Read the passage: 'Personal conduct during the MEPS process is closely observed. Applicants who are disrespectful, dishonest, or disruptive may be disqualified regardless of their test scores or physical condition. MEPS personnel evaluate character as part of the overall suitability determination.' What can cause an applicant to be disqualified at MEPS despite good test scores? A) Arriving late to an appointment B) Disrespectful or dishonest conduct C) Requesting too many job options D) Refusing to take the ASVAB retake

Refusing to take the ASVAB retake
Requesting too many job options
Disrespectful or dishonest conduct (Correct answer)
Arriving late to an appointment

Correct answer: Disrespectful or dishonest conduct

The passage states that disrespectful, dishonest, or disruptive applicants may be disqualified regardless of their scores.

Question 28: When a recruit enlists into the DEP at MEPS, they technically become a member of which military component?

The National Guard
Active duty forces
The Selected Reserve
The Ready Reserve (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The Ready Reserve

DEP members are enlisted into the Ready Reserve (specifically the Inactive Ready Reserve) and are not on active duty.

Question 29: How long can marijuana metabolites (THC-COOH) typically be detected in a chronic heavy user's urine?

Up to 30 days or more (Correct answer)
Exactly 14 days
3–5 days
7–10 days

Correct answer: Up to 30 days or more

In chronic heavy users, fat-soluble THC metabolites can accumulate in body tissue and be detectable in urine for 30 days or more after last use.

Question 30: During the MEPS medical screening, an applicant is tested for color vision. An inability to correctly identify the patterns in the pseudoisochromatic plates (PIP test) would most likely disqualify an applicant from which type of military career field?

Administrative and clerical roles.
Food service specialist.
Electrician or avionics technician. (Correct answer)
Infantry or ground combat roles.

Correct answer: Electrician or avionics technician.

Normal color vision is a critical requirement for many technical jobs, especially those involving electrical wiring, electronics, and aircraft systems (avionics), where components are often color-coded for safety and proper function. While some combat roles also have requirements, it is a strict prerequisite for most electrical and avionics fields.

Question 31: Which ASVAB category represents the lowest-scoring applicants that the military will consider for enlistment?

Category IVA (21–30)
Category IVB (16–20)
Category V (1–15)
Category IIIB (31–49) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Category IIIB (31–49)

In practice, most branches set their floor at AFQT Category IIIB (31–49); Category IV and V applicants are generally ineligible.

Question 32: Which of the following accurately describes the difference between the Oath of Enlistment and the Oath of Office?

There is no difference — both are identical in wording
The Oath of Office includes a pledge to a specific branch
Enlisted members take both oaths simultaneously at MEPS
The Oath of Enlistment is for enlisted members; the Oath of Office is for commissioned officers (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The Oath of Enlistment is for enlisted members; the Oath of Office is for commissioned officers

Enlisted members take the Oath of Enlistment, while commissioned officers take the Oath of Office — they have distinct wording and legal implications.

Question 33: An applicant at MEPS is found to have a medical condition that is considered "Temporarily Disqualifying" (TDQ). What is the most accurate description of this situation?

The applicant is qualified for service but will be restricted to non-combat roles for a probationary period.
The applicant must immediately apply for a medical waiver through the specific branch of service's Surgeon General.
The applicant cannot continue processing until further medical documentation or testing is provided and reviewed. (Correct answer)
The applicant is permanently barred from military service without any possibility of appeal.

Correct answer: The applicant cannot continue processing until further medical documentation or testing is provided and reviewed.

A temporary disqualification (TDQ) means that the MEPS medical staff needs more information to make a final determination. The applicant's processing is paused until they provide the required medical records or complete additional consultations. It is not a permanent bar, nor does it automatically trigger a waiver request; a permanent disqualification is required before a waiver can be considered.

Question 34: What is the standard waiting period after a felony arrest (without conviction) before MEPS will process an applicant?

Only waivers granted by Congress can clear the waiting period
No waiting period if charges were dropped
Typically a minimum waiting period until the case is fully adjudicated and documentation of outcome is provided (Correct answer)
3 years regardless of outcome

Correct answer: Typically a minimum waiting period until the case is fully adjudicated and documentation of outcome is provided

For a felony arrest without conviction, MEPS typically requires that the case be fully adjudicated (dismissed, charges dropped with documentation) before processing; the applicant must provide official court documents showing the disposition.

Question 35: What is a 'DEP discharge'?

The formal release of a recruit from their DEP enlistment before reporting to active duty (Correct answer)
The process of shipping a DEP member to basic training on their scheduled date
A disciplinary action taken during basic training
An honorable discharge issued after completing active duty service

Correct answer: The formal release of a recruit from their DEP enlistment before reporting to active duty

A DEP discharge is the formal release of a recruit from their DEP enlistment contract before they ever report to basic training.

Question 36: What factor most significantly reduces the chance a moral waiver will be approved?

The recruit is over 21 years old at time of application
The recruit is applying for a combat MOS
The recruit has multiple offenses rather than a single isolated incident (Correct answer)
The offense occurred in a different state than where the recruit is enlisting

Correct answer: The recruit has multiple offenses rather than a single isolated incident

A pattern of multiple offenses suggests a character trend rather than a single mistake, which recruiters and waiver boards view very unfavorably.

Question 37: Why might a recruiter advise an applicant to accept a job sooner rather than waiting for their preferred job to become available?

Waiting always results in a lower security clearance level
Preferred jobs are permanently removed from availability after 30 days
Waiting automatically reduces the enlistment bonus amount
Job availability fluctuates and a preferred job may never open in the desired timeframe (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Job availability fluctuates and a preferred job may never open in the desired timeframe

Military job openings are driven by real-time needs and quotas, so a preferred job that is not currently available may remain unavailable for an extended or indefinite period.

Question 38: How does a juvenile record affect an applicant's ability to enlist in the military?

Juvenile felonies automatically disqualify but misdemeanors are always waived
Juvenile records are completely sealed and never disclosed or reviewed
Juvenile records only matter if the applicant is under 18 at enlistment
Juvenile adjudications must be disclosed on military enlistment applications and can require waivers depending on severity (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Juvenile adjudications must be disclosed on military enlistment applications and can require waivers depending on severity

Juvenile adjudications (even if sealed) must be disclosed on military enlistment applications. Depending on the severity, they may require a moral waiver.

Question 39: Which of the following is the correct cutoff concentration for a confirmed positive marijuana (THC-COOH) urine test under federal guidelines?

50 ng/mL initial screen / 15 ng/mL confirmation (Correct answer)
100 ng/mL initial screen / 50 ng/mL confirmation
5 ng/mL
15 ng/mL

Correct answer: 50 ng/mL initial screen / 15 ng/mL confirmation

Federal guidelines set the initial immunoassay screening cutoff at 50 ng/mL and the confirmatory GC-MS cutoff at 15 ng/mL for THC-COOH.

Question 40: Read the passage: 'First aid training is mandatory for all military personnel. Knowing how to control bleeding, treat shock, and perform rescue breathing can mean the difference between life and death on the battlefield. The goal is not to replace medical professionals but to stabilize a casualty until advanced care is available.' What is the stated goal of military first aid training? A) To replace the need for field medics in combat B) To teach soldiers advanced surgical techniques C) To stabilize casualties until professional care arrives D) To qualify soldiers as licensed medical personnel

To stabilize casualties until professional care arrives (Correct answer)
To qualify soldiers as licensed medical personnel
To teach soldiers advanced surgical techniques
To replace the need for field medics in combat

Correct answer: To stabilize casualties until professional care arrives

The passage states the goal is to stabilize a casualty until advanced care is available, not to replace professionals.

Question 41: What is the minimum AFQT score for Marine Corps enlistment with a high school diploma?

31
36
25
32 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 32

The Marine Corps requires a minimum AFQT score of 32 for high school diploma holders.

Question 42: In the Navy, what is the equivalent of the Army's MOS called?

Designator
Rating (Correct answer)
NEC
AFSC

Correct answer: Rating

The Navy uses the term 'Rating' to describe an enlisted sailor's job specialty, such as Machinist's Mate or Electronics Technician.

Question 43: What is a 'DEP' waiver in the context of MEPS medical processing?

A Department of Education Partnership waiver
A waiver for drug exposure prior to enlistment
A waiver for recruits already in the Delayed Entry Program who develop a new medical condition (Correct answer)
A special waiver for dental deficiencies only

Correct answer: A waiver for recruits already in the Delayed Entry Program who develop a new medical condition

DEP waivers address new medical conditions that arise after a recruit has already entered the Delayed Entry Program.

Question 44: Why are recruits instructed to bring a list of all medications to their MEPS medical examination?

To receive free replacement medications from MEPS pharmacy
So examiners can assess conditions being treated and potential serviceability issues (Correct answer)
To determine which vaccines they still need
To prove they have health insurance coverage

Correct answer: So examiners can assess conditions being treated and potential serviceability issues

Medication lists help MEPS physicians understand underlying conditions, evaluate treatment dependencies, and determine overall medical fitness for service.

Question 45: At what point in the pre-screening process does the recruiter submit an applicant's records to the MEPS liaison?

After the medical pre-screen form is reviewed and the applicant is tentatively qualified (Correct answer)
After the applicant passes the ASVAB
Only after a waiver is approved
Before any medical history is gathered

Correct answer: After the medical pre-screen form is reviewed and the applicant is tentatively qualified

Once the DD Form 2807-2 is reviewed and the applicant appears tentatively qualified, the recruiter submits records to schedule the MEPS appointment.

Question 46: An applicant is required to complete a Standard Form 86 (SF-86), Questionnaire for National Security Positions, as part of their pre-screening packet because the job they are interested in requires a security clearance. What is the primary purpose of this form?

To provide a basis for a background investigation to determine eligibility for access to classified information. (Correct answer)
To document the applicant's detailed medical history for the MEPS physicians.
To serve as the primary application for all military enlistment programs.
To register the applicant for the Selective Service System.

Correct answer: To provide a basis for a background investigation to determine eligibility for access to classified information.

The SF-86 is a detailed questionnaire used by the federal government to conduct background checks for individuals being considered for positions that require a security clearance (Confidential, Secret, or Top Secret). It gathers extensive information about an individual's personal history to determine their trustworthiness and reliability for handling classified information.

Question 47: On the ASVAB, what does the Arithmetic Reasoning subtest primarily evaluate?

Ability to solve word problems using basic math (Correct answer)
Understanding of geometry proofs
Knowledge of algebra and calculus
Speed at performing mental arithmetic

Correct answer: Ability to solve word problems using basic math

Arithmetic Reasoning tests your ability to solve word problems that require basic mathematical operations and reasoning.

Question 48: Which of the following financial issues would most likely result in an automatic disqualification for a security clearance?

Having student loan debt
Missing one credit card payment
Having a mortgage with a high interest rate
Intentional falsification of financial records or embezzlement conviction (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Intentional falsification of financial records or embezzlement conviction

Criminal financial misconduct such as embezzlement or intentional fraud directly undermines the trustworthiness standard required for a security clearance.

Question 49: Which military branch typically grants the most moral waivers for felony offenses during periods of high recruitment need?

Marine Corps
Coast Guard
Army (Correct answer)
Air Force

Correct answer: Army

The Army, with the largest active-duty force, has historically approved more moral waivers including for felonies during periods of high recruitment demand.

Question 50: What is the primary legal effect of taking the Oath of Enlistment?

It legally binds the individual to military service under the UCMJ (Correct answer)
It voids all prior civilian contracts the enlistee has signed
It grants the enlistee full veteran benefits immediately
It transfers state citizenship to federal jurisdiction permanently

Correct answer: It legally binds the individual to military service under the UCMJ

Taking the oath brings the individual under the Uniform Code of Military Justice and creates a legally binding obligation to serve.

Question 51: Which branch of service uses the term 'EDPT' (Electronics Data Processing Test) as an additional qualification tool beyond the ASVAB?

Army
Air Force (Correct answer)
Marine Corps
Navy

Correct answer: Air Force

The Air Force uses the EDPT as a supplemental test for highly technical computer and electronics career fields.

Question 52: An applicant discloses they had major knee surgery (e.g., ACL repair) four months ago. They provide documentation of a successful procedure and are attending physical therapy. What is the MOST likely outcome of their MEPS physical exam on this day?

Qualification, but with a permanent profile restricting running and jumping.
Full qualification, as long as a surgeon's note clears them for activity.
Temporary Disqualification (TDQ) pending a mandatory post-operative waiting period. (Correct answer)
Permanent Disqualification (PDQ) due to the high risk of re-injury.

Correct answer: Temporary Disqualification (TDQ) pending a mandatory post-operative waiting period.

Military medical standards require a mandatory waiting period after significant surgical procedures to ensure complete healing and recovery before the rigors of training. For a major orthopedic surgery, an applicant would be temporarily disqualified (TDQ) until the prescribed period (often 6-12 months) has passed and they have demonstrated a full recovery. [18, 23]

Question 53: An applicant admits to experimenting with marijuana twice in college but has no other drug history. What is the most accurate statement about their eligibility?

The applicant must wait 10 years before reapplying
Limited experimental drug use may be waiverable depending on branch and policy (Correct answer)
Any drug use is an automatic lifetime bar from service
Drug use is only relevant if it led to an arrest

Correct answer: Limited experimental drug use may be waiverable depending on branch and policy

Some branches allow waivers for limited, experimental drug use, though policies vary and more extensive histories are harder to waive.

Question 54: What Air Force term is used to describe enlisted job classifications?

NEC
AFSC (Correct answer)
MOS
Rating

Correct answer: AFSC

The Air Force uses Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) to classify enlisted and officer jobs.

Question 55: Which of the following best describes the purpose of the SF-86 form completed during background screening?

To authorize a drug test at MEPS
To collect personal history for a security clearance investigation (Correct answer)
To document physical examination results
To enroll the applicant in the Selective Service System

Correct answer: To collect personal history for a security clearance investigation

The SF-86 (Questionnaire for National Security Positions) collects detailed personal history used to adjudicate security clearances.

Question 56: What is the purpose of the orthopedic evaluation portion of the MEPS physical examination?

To assess range of motion and detect musculoskeletal conditions that could limit duty performance (Correct answer)
To screen for genetic bone diseases exclusively
To verify that all prior fractures were treated surgically
To measure grip strength and running speed

Correct answer: To assess range of motion and detect musculoskeletal conditions that could limit duty performance

The orthopedic exam checks joint mobility, posture, and musculoskeletal integrity to identify conditions that could impair a service member's physical performance.

Question 57: What is the standard urine specimen volume required for military drug testing at MEPS?

45 mL (Correct answer)
100 mL
30 mL
500 mL

Correct answer: 45 mL

MEPS requires a minimum urine specimen volume of 45 mL to allow for primary testing and potential confirmation testing.

Question 58: Which document does MEPS require to verify a prior surgical history disclosed by the applicant?

A radiograph of the surgical site taken at MEPS
Operative reports and follow-up medical records from the treating provider (Correct answer)
A sworn affidavit from the applicant is sufficient
Only a letter from the applicant's current primary care physician

Correct answer: Operative reports and follow-up medical records from the treating provider

Operative reports provide the definitive record of the procedure performed, hardware placed, and outcome, which MEPS uses to assess current functional status.

Question 59: How many times does a new recruit swear or affirm the Oath of Enlistment during the typical MEPS process?

Once — only at final shipping
Once — only when entering DEP
Three times — at each MEPS visit
Twice — once at DEP entry and once at shipping (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Twice — once at DEP entry and once at shipping

Recruits typically take the oath twice: once when joining the Delayed Entry Program and again when they formally ship to basic training.

Question 60: What happens if a recruit fails to meet the minimum AFQT score on the first ASVAB attempt at MEPS?

They may retest after a one-month waiting period (Correct answer)
They are permanently barred from military service
They automatically qualify for a waiver
They must wait two years before retesting

Correct answer: They may retest after a one-month waiting period

After an initial ASVAB failure, recruits must wait at least one calendar month before retesting for the first time.

Question 61: Which of the following is considered an 'aggravating factor' that makes a moral waiver less likely to be approved?

The applicant completed required community service
The applicant has strong letters of recommendation
The offense occurred more than 10 years ago
The offense involved a minor victim (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The offense involved a minor victim

Offenses involving minor victims are a significant aggravating factor that weighs heavily against waiver approval in military moral standards reviews.

Question 62: When an applicant is offered an enlistment bonus for a specific job, where must the details of this incentive be officially documented to be considered a binding part of the contract?

On a separate, informal document kept at the recruiting station.
In the verbal promises made by the Service Counselor.
In the applicant's personal notes from the counseling session.
In an annex attached to the DD Form 4, specifying the amount and conditions. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: In an annex attached to the DD Form 4, specifying the amount and conditions.

All binding promises and incentives, such as enlistment bonuses, must be officially documented in writing as an annex to the DD Form 4. This annex will specify the exact dollar amount, the job it is tied to, and the requirements for payment (e.g., successful completion of training). Verbal promises are not considered binding.

MEPS Exam

The MEPS Exam exam validates essential knowledge and skills required for certification or licensure in this field.

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60 min

Time Limit

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